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Matthew 11:27

Discussion in 'Other Christian Denominations' started by billwald, Nov 4, 2007.

  1. billwald

    billwald New Member

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    What does "no one knows" mean? Does it mean the same both times? Plain meaning seems to be that no one can know Jesus but it is possible for some to know God.

    Matthew 11:27 (New International Version)

    New International Version (NIV)
    Copyright © 1973, 1978, 1984 by International Bible Society



    27"All things have been committed to me by my Father. No one knows the Son except the Father, and no one knows the Father except the Son and those to whom the Son chooses to reveal him.
     
  2. skypair

    skypair Active Member

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    To me it means, in this case, having the "mind of God." Jesus has the "mind of God" and we can have the "mind of Christ" as He reveals God's knowledge and we grow "in the knowledge and faith of the Son." Eph 4:13

    But one day, God will be "all in all." That is, we will have the "mind of God" -- know Him.

    skypair
     
  3. Eliyahu

    Eliyahu Active Member
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    Mt:27 All things are delivered unto me of my Father: and no man knoweth the Son, but the Father; neither knoweth any man the Father, save the Son, and he to whomsoever the Son will reveal him.

    This is one of my favorite verses.

    Who can know or even fathom the Son unless he or she is enlightened by the Holy Spirit, who can know the Father unless he or she gets the revelation by the Holy Spirit ?

    I believe this " know" means the relationship.

    Though there is a minor difference between epiginosko ( Mt 11:27) and ginosko( Jn 17:3), I believe they still meant the same, the personal relationship with God.

    John 17
    2 As thou hast given him power over all flesh, that he should give eternal life to as many as thou hast given him.
    3 And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.


    No one can know the Son unless he or she is born again by the Holy Spirit.
     
  4. billwald

    billwald New Member

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    Thanks for the input.
     
  5. Gerhard Ebersoehn

    Gerhard Ebersoehn Active Member
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    Eliyahu
    "Though there is a minor difference between epiginosko ( Mt 11:27) and ginosko( Jn 17:3), I believe they still meant the same, the personal relationship with God."

    GE

    Ah, there is a world's difference between the two! Epi's main 'function' or meaning is that of emphasis. It is often used in this way, and virtually terminates any meaning at its all-surpassing extreme. It is utterly impossible to know the Father, but through the Son, is the meaning here. It excludes every 'other way' as is nowadays so passionately reasoned. Budah is one way to approach the Father, Islam another, and so on. No! Jesus says here, I am the only Way!
     
  6. Eliyahu

    Eliyahu Active Member
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    The whole context means the same too, so you are correct.

    As for the relationship, even the sexual relationship was expressed by ginosko in Mt 1:25. In that case, even the relationship in depth is expressed by ginosko without epi, though epi meant more depth in general.
     
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