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Matthew 24:2 ... is it "World" or "Age" ?

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by tomana, Nov 26, 2012.

  1. tomana

    tomana Member

    Nov 4, 2012
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    I was reading about a number of different bible topics today and somehow came upon Matthew 24 and whether or not it describes what happened in 70 AD or, if it is a prophecy yet unfulfilled.

    I did a word search for "world" in Matt 24 verse 3 and verse 14 and Strongs says the following:

    From the same as G104; properly an age; by extension perpetuity (also past);
    by implication the world; specifically (Jewish) a Messianic period (present or future)

    - properly an age
    - by extension perpetuity
    - by implication the world
    - specifically (Jewish) a Messianic period

    Feminine participle present passive of G3611 (as noun, by implication of G1093);
    land, that is, the (terrene part of the) globe; specifically the Roman empire

    - land, that is, the terrene part of the globe
    - specifically the Roman empire

    I have a question:

    Why did the KJV translators choose that which is implied (world) instead of that which is "proper" (an Age) or that which is "specific" (a Messianic period) in verse 3? In Matt 24:14 the Greek is oikoumenē for the word "World" and that Greek word means the globe. The word used in Matt 24:3 has to mean something else, such as "Age" or "Messianic period", does it not?
    #1 tomana, Nov 26, 2012
    Last edited by a moderator: Nov 26, 2012
  2. Grasshopper

    Grasshopper Active Member
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    Apr 19, 2002
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    Gary DeMar:

    (On Aion / World)
    "Notice that the disciples did not ask about the dissolution of the physical heaven and earth or the judgment of the "world" (kosmos). After hearing Jesus pronounce judgment on the temple and city of Jerusalem (Matthew 23:37*39), His disciples ask about the end of the "age" (aion). When did the "end" occur? The only proximate eschatological event that fits the "end of the age" framework is the destruction of Jerusalem in A.D. 70. The disciples knew that the fall of the temple and the destruction of the city meant the end of the Old Covenant order and the inauguration of a new order. As Jews who were familiar with Old Testament imagery, the disciples recognized the meaning of this restructuring language. Jesus nowhere corrects or modifies the multi-faceted question of the disciples..* The "age to come," therefore, is simply a designation for the Christian era, an era that was long ago prophesied by the prophets. Abraham, for example, "rejoiced in order to see [Jesus'] day; and he saw it, and was glad" (John 8:56). The old covenant with its attendant animal sacrifices and earthly priesthood passed away when God's lamb, Jesus Christ, took away the sins of the world." (The Passing Away of Heaven and Earth)
  3. Iconoclast

    Iconoclast Well-Known Member
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    Mar 25, 2010
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  4. Greektim

    Greektim Well-Known Member

    May 22, 2010
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    Let me respond with another question. Why is "eternal life" always translated as such when the phrase is less idiomatic of eternity and more idiomatic for Jewish thinking of the "age of life" or the "age to come" after the present age??? Its just what translations do. Its tradition!
  5. kyredneck

    kyredneck Well-Known Member
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    Jul 28, 2009
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    3 And as he sat on the mount of Olives, the disciples came unto him privately, saying, Tell us, when shall these things be? and what shall be the sign of thy coming, and of the end of the world?
    34 Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pass away, till all these things be accomplished. Mt 24