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Missing Doctrines?

Askjo

New Member
Deacon said:
It’s quite curious that the in John 6:69 the word “holy” is present in the Greek text used by many modern versions but missing in the Greek texts used by the KJV.

We have come to believe and know that You are the Holy One of God!
HCSB

And we believe and are sure that thou art that Christ, the Son of the living God.
AV 1873

Rob
See blue bold above. Disagree! Massive manuscripts gone back to 2nd Century agreed with the KJV. Only a few MSS gone back to 3rd Century agreed with modern versions reflecting to a word, "holy."
 

Deacon

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
This thread deals with doctrines missing or weakened in the modern versions.
Many of us don’t think there are any significant differences.
Others dealt in vague generalities but you were the only one to bring up a specific instance.
That's great! It's someting to study-out.

As I perceived it, your earlier argument is that the modern versions minimize a doctrine in John 7:39 (the holiness of the Spirit of God) by omitting the word “holy”.

I don’t believe there is any doctrinal change effected by the difference.

Askjo, I was merely applying your argument to anther verse by bringing up John 6:69.
Does the absence of the word “holy” in the textus receptus imply that our Lord is not holy?
Does it weaken the doctrine of the holiness of the Son of God?

Rob
 
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