• Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!

Nakedness, Covering and Atonement

Martin Marprelate

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I thought it might be interesting to discuss these three words in the light of discussions and non-discussions elsewhere.

Perhaps we might start with the Hebrew verb kapar or kaphar (Strongs 3722). This is a verb with the basic meaning of 'to cover,' though not in the sense of merely concealing. It it employed to signify the cancellation or 'writing over' of a contract (Isaiah 28:18), to appease anger (Gen. 32:20; Prov. 16:14), but 70 times, the large majority of its usage, the word is translated in the KJV as to 'make atonement' (e.g. Exod. 32:30; Ezek. 45:17). Atonement was generally made through the blood of sacrifices (Exod. 30:10). By this, sin was purged (Psalm 79:9, KJV; Isaiah 6:7) and forgiven (Psalm 78:38).

We read in Gen 2:25 that, ‘They were both naked, the man and his wife, and were not ashamed.’ To put this in another way, they had no covering. There was no covering or atonement for sin, but that didn’t matter at the time, because there was no sin to cover. It begs the question of why the matter was even mentioned. But as soon as they fell into sin, it became of crucial importance. ‘Then the eyes of both of them were opened, and they knew that they were naked; and they sewed fig leaves together and made themselves coverings’ (Gen 3:7). The word translated 'coverings here is not kaphar, but nonetheless, why did Adam and Eve, as soon as they became conscious of sin, try and cover themselves? The Bible tells us that sinful man cannot stand before a righteous God unless that sin be covered. But a man-made covering is no covering at all as far as God is concerned. As Isaiah says (64:6 ); ‘But we are all like an unclean thing, and all our righteousnesses are like filthy rags.’ Even as Adam and Eve put on their home-made garments, they knew in their hearts that the fig leaves were worthless to hide their sin from God, so they hid from His presence (Gen 3:8 ). The true covering for sin must come from God Himself, and it must involve the shedding of blood (Heb 9:22 ) as we shall see.

So it was God Himself who provided coverings for the guilty parties (Gen. 3:21), and that covering, since it was of animal skins, must have involved the shedding of blood. But Heb. 10:11-14 tells us that the blood of animals can never take away sins, and that it is Jesus Christ who has made the one perfect sacrifice for sins forever, and Romans 3:25 informs us that by that sacrifice of propitiation God is just to forgive those sins committed by the Old Testament saints, and, in the following verse, to forgive the N.T. saints (us) as well, so that we can rejoice with Isaiah:
'I will greatly rejoice in the LORD, my soul shall be joyful in my God;
For He has clothed me with the garments of salvation,
He has covered me with the robe of righteousness....'
 
Last edited:

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
I think we need to be a little more open about the word.

The first use of kaphar in the Bible is found in Genesis 6:14. In this verse Noah is instructed to coat (kaphar) the inside and outside of the Ark with pitch.

But it also is used when men try to appease other men (like the examples @Martin Marprelate gave), literally to "cover" their face.

Probably the main sence we take the word is from the Levitical system where kaphar refers to a ritual cleansing mechanism.

This is one instance where relying on root meanings over how the word is used may not be as helpful as the context of the passage in question. The issue would be erroneous decisions based on "coat" (the first biblical use of the word).

Coating the Ark in pitch makes sence where coating a contract or coating one of sin does not.
 

Ascetic X

Well-Known Member
Perhaps we might start with the Hebrew verb kapar or kaphar (Strongs 3722). This is a verb with the basic meaning of 'to cover,' though not in the sense of merely concealing. It it employed to signify the cancellation or 'writing over' of a contract (Isaiah 28:18), to appease anger (Gen. 32:20; Prov. 16:14), but 70 times, the large majority of its usage, the word is translated in the KJV as to 'make atonement' (e.g. Exod. 32:30; Ezek. 45:17). Atonement was generally made through the blood of sacrifices (Exod. 30:10). By this, sin was purged (Psalm 79:9, KJV; Isaiah 6:7) and forgiven (Psalm 78:38).

We read in Gen 2:25 that, ‘They were both naked, the man and his wife, and were not ashamed.’ To put this in another way, they had no covering. There was no covering or atonement for sin, but that didn’t matter at the time, because there was no sin to cover. It begs the question of why the matter was even mentioned. But as soon as they fell into sin, it became of crucial importance. ‘Then the eyes of both of them were opened, and they knew that they were naked; and they sewed fig leaves together and made themselves coverings’ (Gen 3:7). The word translated 'coverings here is not kaphar, but nonetheless, why did Adam and Eve, as soon as they became conscious of sin, try and cover themselves? The Bible tells us that sinful man cannot stand before a righteous God unless that sin be covered.

So it was God Himself who provided coverings for the guilty parties (Gen. 3:21), and that covering, since it was of animal skins, must have involved the shedding of blood. But Heb. 10:11-14 tells us that the blood of animals can never take away sins, and that it is Jesus Christ who has made the one perfect sacrifice for sins forever, and Romans 3:25 informs us that by that sacrifice of propitiation God is just to forgive those sins committed by the Old Testament saints, and, in the following verse, to forgive the N.T. saints (us) as well, so that we can rejoice with Isaiah:
'I will greatly rejoice in the LORD, my soul shall be joyful in my God;
For He has clothed me with the garments of salvation,
He has covered me with the robe of righteousness....'
Perhaps the first use of naked means “physically unclothed”, while the second use of naked means “spiritually uncovered, needing atonement”.

If in their original sinless state, they radiated the visible shining glory of the Lord, then when they sinned, that righteous glow was gone, and that was their nakedness.

The skins God made to cover them involved shedding of blood. Animal blood cannot take away sins, but it symbolizes the atonement of Christ that was coming later. Faith in that future sacrifice was credited to OT believers as justification.
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
Perhaps the first use of naked means “physically unclothed”, while the second use of naked means “spiritually uncovered, needing atonement”.

If in their original sinless state, they radiated the visible shining glory of the Lord, then when they sinned, that righteous glow was gone, and that was their nakedness.

The skins God made to cover them involved shedding of blood. Animal blood cannot take away sins, but it symbolizes the atonement of Christ that was coming later. Faith in that future sacrifice was credited to OT believers as justification.
Or a loss of innocence. They existed apart from a knowledge of good and evil until they didn't.
 
Top