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Open, close, closed Communion?

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Dr. Walter, May 1, 2010.

  1. Dr. Walter

    Dr. Walter New Member

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    Whose table is it? Yours? or the Lord's? If the Lord's Supper is nobody's business but yours or the church administrating it, then what business did Paul have telling them how the church at Corinth observed it was wrong, so wrong that Paul said "this is not the Lord's Supper"?

    I would assume that the Lord had instructed Paul as to what is and is not the proper obervance of His Supper! So it does matter who participates and how it is observed or else Paul wasted his breath in I Corithians 5; I Cor. 10:15-21 and I Cor. 11:17-30
     
  2. Jerome

    Jerome Well-Known Member
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    Eagle, the alibi of those who imagine that that church excluded Paul from communion is that Paul was only having a mid-sermon snack break in verse 11:laugh:
     
  3. Eagle

    Eagle Member

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    Thanks Jerome, for the assist -- and for the levity!

    It seems pretty evident that Paul had "broken bread" and had "eaten", by verse 11 of Acts 20.
     
  4. Dr. Walter

    Dr. Walter New Member

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    No, there is no mid-sermon snack break but the early Christians usually observed an agape feast just before they partook of the Lord's Supper. How do you know that this was not the agape feast that preceded the Lord's Supper? Since Paul is the author of 1 Cor. 5 and he defines the bread as the church body and thus a church ordinance wouldn't it be more consistent with his own teaching that he partook only of the Love feast aspect as both aspects would be regarded as breaking bread. The terms "broke bread" are used many times in scripture for merely a meal (Acts 27:35). Jesus broke bread with the two on the road to Emmaeus (Lk. 24:11) but was that the Lord's Supper?
     
  5. Dr. Walter

    Dr. Walter New Member

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    The additional descriptive "and had eaten" is never used with the Lord's Supper but according to JFB and Robertson refers to the common meal or love feast. The combination of terms indicates that he simply blessed the meal and ate. Furthermore, it does say the "when he came back up the church (brethren) broke bread.

    At any rate don't you think it is a stretch to base a doctrine upon verse 11 when you have the same writer speaking of the Lord's Supper in 1 Corinthians 5 in terms that eliminate those outside the church body???
     
  6. Eagle

    Eagle Member

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    Hey Tom, how you doin'?

    You are right in the quote above, we have here an apparent conflict. How to resolve?

    Firstly, I think that both due to a desire to be careful with God's Word, and due to a fear that some might say we are 'twisting' to make it fit, or not 'literally interpreting,' etc., that we are way too hesitant sometimes to simply let the clear understanding make the case, and then 'make' or 'allow' the subordinate understanding be just that - subordinate. Therefore:

    Secondly, the clear understanding, as you cited from more than one place, is that Judas left. The subordinate understanding is that 'figuratively' (oh no! don't use that word!) Judas did eat at Jesus table, and was numbered among Christ's followers - whether actually present at that specific time or not. Of course, I suppose it possible that Judas returned to the table by the time of Jesus' statement - tho I think highly unlikely.

    I only bring this in to illustrate, that it is OK to interpret scripture in this way. It is simple and easy, not strained or convoluted. No contradictions, everything compatible. In fact, I propose that this is how we must interpret scripture - it is a part of letting scripture interpret scripture.

    As to it's pertinence or relevance to my previously stated position on Communion - it is moot. Christ did not then, nor does his ecclessia (body) now, use force to prevent any from eating. We teach & warn. We do not post sentries at the table, nor do I think, giving interviews, etc., is biblical. We maintain 'due diligence' so to speak, by clearly teaching & warning - the rest is up to the individual. God expects 'due diligence' from His church, not precise, exact control over who "eats". Honestly, we kid ourselves if we think that whatever interviews, scrutiny, etc., we bring to bear - that we will actually prevent all who are "unworthy" of partaking.

    That said, I respect those who have undertaken these steps for what they are intending - I just think it is an unnecessary burden on all involved (extra-biblical), and can perhaps paint us as weird, odd, extreme, cultish, etc., unnecessarily.

    I realize the world may (and does) view us this way anyway, and that we say "we don't care" what they think, however, there is no need to unneccessarily add to this, and possibly cause detriment to our cause - without biblical mandate.
     
  7. Eagle

    Eagle Member

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    Hello Dr. Walter,

    Actually, it does not say, "the church (brethren) broke bread". Rather, it says, "When he [Paul] therefore was come up again, and had broken bread, and eaten..." (KJV)

    Also, what I find a "stretch" as you say, is to base a doctrine on an imperfect illustration (interpretation) of a Hebrew metaphor. I understand that there is more evidence for your position - but what you keep hammering is this metaphor - which makes me a little uneasy, at the least. Bring more substance. What you are holding forth is what I would call subordinate, corroborative, complementary, etc., evidence -- not the meat or main support evidence.
     
  8. SaggyWoman

    SaggyWoman Active Member

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    The interesting thing of your comment is that Jesus started the Lord's Supper with his disciples, who then did not attend one local church with each other, but were spread out. I would not think that denying any of them in participating in a communal Lord's supper would then thereafter be appropriate.
     
  9. Jerome

    Jerome Well-Known Member
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    J. R. Graves, Old Landmarkism:
     
  10. rsr

    rsr <b> 7,000 posts club</b>
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    John Gill:

     
    #90 rsr, May 9, 2010
    Last edited by a moderator: May 9, 2010
  11. Dr. Walter

    Dr. Walter New Member

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    In another post, I tried to demonstrate that the Lord's Supper was instituted with only church members. In the Great commission as stated in Mathew 28;19-20 and as applied first in Acts 2:41-42 there is a specific order; (1) go with the gospel; (2) baptize those who receive the gospel; (3) add them to the church body; (4) teach them to OBSERVE all other things.

    The Great Commission command is impossible to complete outside of church membership and this is confirmed in Acts 2:41 where "added unto them" is inserted between baptism and stedfastly continuing in the apostles doctrine. The point is that observing all other commands does not precede gospel conversion or baptism or church membership but comes afterwards.

    I then pointed out the repeated langauge of 1 Corinthians 11 "when ye come togther" or "in the church" in regard to the Lord's Supper. I also pointed the language of I Cor. 5:7 "YE ARE UNLEAVENED" had reference to "THE WHOLE LUMP" out of which a member in the church at Corinth was to be "purged out" so that the "whole lump" becomes a "new" lump. I further pointed out that the bread represents the church in 1 Cor. 10:15-16.

    Finally, if we believe the church is a local body of baptized believers joined together to carry out this commission and if the commission is give to such a church then the Lord's supper both by symbolism and by commission is a church ordinance rather than a "Christian" ordinance.

    So as you can see, I have not just relied upon symbolism but rather symbolism comes into to be a support.
     
  12. Dr. Walter

    Dr. Walter New Member

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    I beleive Acts 1:21-22 demonstrates they attended a travelling assembly from the time of John the Baptist until Acts 2:1. The three thousand on Penteocost was not the origin of the church but rather were "added unto" the already existent church in Acts 2:1 who were the same assembly conducting a business meeting to install a person into the "church" office of apostle in Acts 1:15-30 (I Cor. 12:28).
     
  13. Dr. Walter

    Dr. Walter New Member

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    Well, we find the same thing in Acts 27:35 and no one imagines that was the Lord's Supper he was partaking:

    Ac 27:35 And when he had thus spoken, he took bread, and gave thanks to God in presence of them all: and when he had broken it, he began to eat.
     
  14. Dr. Walter

    Dr. Walter New Member

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    Well, Dr. Gill was a great interpreter but great interpreters make great mistakes. The Lord's Supper is not a "he" ordinance but a church ordinance. Does Gill suppose that Acts 27:35 is also the Lord's Supper??????
     
  15. rsr

    rsr <b> 7,000 posts club</b>
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    No, because it obviously was not a gathering of the church. Unlike the earlier instance.
     
  16. Eagle

    Eagle Member

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    I do not understand where this statement comes from. Most, if not all, the disciples were still in Jerusalem, in the upper room, at Pentecost, attending "church,"near as I can tell. On what basis do you say,"...who then did not attend one local church with each other..."?
     
  17. Eagle

    Eagle Member

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    I would also add that tho Graves may have been right about many things - he certainly would have had an "agenda" to ensure a "closed communion" interpretation, in order to mesh with, and support, his other Landmark positions.
     
  18. Tom Butler

    Tom Butler New Member

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    One other point to add: The "lump" cannot be the Universal Church, since purging the leaven from the U-church will result in that person losing his salvation. If salvation places one in the U-Church, expelling one from the U-church necessitates taking their salvation from them.

    Oh, that's crazy, one might say. No, I'm just taking an argument to its logical conclusion.

    The only lump from which leaven can be purged is the local lump, not the universal lump. The U-lump, if it existed, must remain divided and error-filled, since there is no mechanism for dealing with the dividers, troublemakers, and false prophets.
     
  19. Dr. Walter

    Dr. Walter New Member

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    Amen! The body of Christ metaphor has been abused and hijacked by the U-church advocates. The U-church advocates must violate the rules that govern the proper use of metaphors in order to make it fit their concept.
     
  20. saturneptune

    saturneptune New Member

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    The bottom line is that each local church decides whether it is open or closed communion. However one views the matter, there is no problem finding a local Baptist church that believes like you do, as they are all over the map.

    Despite all the misapplied verses, common sense goes a long way. How can anyone use the local church roll as a defining standard of communion when probably 60% or so never or very rarely attend, do not support the church, and do not participate in its ministries. In other words, they show no signs of regeneration. This is the type of person for which closed communion argues the right to participate in the Lord's Supper. It is an artificial man made standard with no merit.

    If you want to belong to a denomination that practices closed communion, may I suggest the Catholic, Church of Christ, or Mormon faiths.
     
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