Anthony Pritchard
Active Member
Dave, I appreciate your reply, but the issue here is not whether God foreknew the crucifixion or permitted it. The issue is the category shift that happens when “allow” becomes “approve,” and then “approve” becomes “decree.” That is the very collapse of categories I was pointing out.Stop and think for a minute about how this thread started and what was said in the first post.
Was it God's will that the Lamb was slain? Then he "approved" it I assume.
Now, if the Lamb was slain it was necessary that Adam sin. Is that going too far? Yet was it God's will that Adam sin? What Calvinists say is that it was a necessity and therefore "decreed" that Adam sin - yet, it was Adam's free choice to sin and it was a violation of God's will.
So I would answer you that if God is all powerful and all knowing, and it is a fact that he allows people to die in their sins - then it must be true that there is a sense in which he approves that happening. Now, I would agree with you if you say that some Calvinists go too far in that they seem to think that God is equally happy that this happens as he is when men come in faith and repentance. I believe that God really does not take pleasure in the death of the wicked and is unhappy when they spurn his grace. But in his wisdom and sovereignty he has set limits and exercises his sovereignty in the salvation of men and we are warned not to question this. But we all have the consolation of an invitation to come to him with his promise that he will receive us if we do and therefore the exercise of his sovereignty in salvation, though real, does not involve refusing anyone who comes by faith. I don't think that is a bad deal and I don't think it falls short of any non-Calvinist "offer".
Scripture distinguishes between what God wills, what God permits, and what God overrules. The crucifixion fits all three categories without collapsing them. God foreknew it. God permitted it. God overruled it for redemption. But Scripture never says God willed the sin itself. The wicked act was theirs, not His. “Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain” (Acts 2:23). The counsel and foreknowledge were God’s. The wicked hands were theirs. The text keeps the categories distinct.
Your argument assumes that if God permits something necessary to His plan, He must therefore approve the sinful act itself. But that is the very point in dispute. Permission is not approval, and approval is not decree. God can permit what He hates in order to accomplish what He loves. That is providence, not determinism.
You also say that if God allows people to die in their sins, “there is a sense in which He approves that happening.” But Scripture says the opposite. “I have no pleasure in the death of the wicked” (Ezekiel 33:11). God permits it. He does not approve it. He takes no pleasure in it. He calls all men everywhere to repent. The distinction matters.
As for Adam’s sin, Scripture never says it was decreed. It says Adam was commanded not to eat, that he disobeyed, and that death entered by his transgression. The necessity of redemption does not imply the decree of sin. God’s foreknowledge of the remedy does not mean He authored the disease.
My point remains simple. God foreknows. God permits. God overrules. But Scripture never attributes the sinful act itself to God’s will. When those categories collapse, we end up saying God willed what He forbids and approved what He condemns. That is not the language of Scripture.
Respectfully,
Tony