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Paraphrasing in the KJV

Discussion in '2004 Archive' started by tinytim, Mar 26, 2004.

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  1. tinytim

    tinytim <img src =/tim2.jpg>

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    What are some famous paraphrases in the KJV?
     
    #1 tinytim, Mar 26, 2004
  2. Frogman

    Frogman <img src="http://www.churches.net/churches/fubc/Fr

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    What!!!!Paraphrasing!!!!!!!!!Are you CRAZY!!!!!!!!!said the King :eek: :D

    [​IMG]

    Really, I don't understand this debate; so here is a picture of me :confused:
     
    #2 Frogman, Mar 26, 2004
  3. tinytim

    tinytim <img src =/tim2.jpg>

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    An example is "God forbid".

    Since the word for God is not in the underlying text, it seems to me that the translators were paraphrasing this.
    Something like "say it ain't so!!!"

    I was just wondering if there were other things that was in the KJV that had no word for word support, that would be considered paraphrasing.
    (not counting the italics)
     
    #3 tinytim, Mar 26, 2004
  4. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    It's not really a paraphrase, but "the image of" in Romans 11:4 comes to mind as an English phrase in the KJV which is NOT found in any known Greek ms for Romans. There are some other such examples, but this one comes to mind immediately.
     
    #4 robycop3, Mar 26, 2004
  5. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    "would to God" also appears in both the AV OT/NT with no original language support.

    HankD
     
    #5 HankD, Mar 26, 2004
  6. Forever settled in heaven

    Forever settled in heaven New Member

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    "and it came to pass" is perhaps more common than it is famous. it renders the Hebrew form Wayehiy, which has no And, It, Came, To, or Pass in it.

    it just means something "Happened."

    good paraphrase, though! :D
     
    #6 Forever settled in heaven, Mar 26, 2004
  7. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    We must keep in mind the great KJVO double standard, which says something that's wrong in other versions is OK in the KJV. And that includes paraphrasing. Personally, I see nothing wrong w/the occasional paraphrase to clarify a certain word or phrase in English, but I'll be the first to admit that some versions overdo it. However, the KJVO has no room to criticize paraphrasing in other versions when the KJV does it also. But then, they often practice that good ole double standard...
     
    #7 robycop3, Mar 27, 2004
  8. tinytim

    tinytim <img src =/tim2.jpg>

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    That is one reason I am asking this question.
    I was on the other board where they were condemning The Message, and condemning paraphrasing, when I mentioned "God Forbid".

    They jumped to defend the KJV, but shot themselves in the foot at the same time.

    (I know The Message, IMHO has it's problems, but I was trying to show them their double-standard. Some people are so blinded to the truth.
     
    #8 tinytim, Mar 27, 2004
  9. gb93433

    gb93433 Active Member
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    Wouldn't that be a colloquialism?
     
    #9 gb93433, Mar 27, 2004
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