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Pastor's qualifications: Prior to conversion?

Discussion in '2005 Archive' started by jdcanady, Jun 20, 2005.

  1. jdcanady

    jdcanady Member

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    Do the I Timothy qualifications for a pastor apply to his life prior to conversion? If not, then if a man were to divorce, prior to conversion, would that disqualify him from pastoral service after conversion? For purposes of this discussion, please assume he meets all the other qualifications listed in scripture.
     
  2. exscentric

    exscentric Well-Known Member
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    In general, no the qualifications are not for pre salvation life, but while believing. If they were for all of your life I'm not sure how many pastors we could muster :) I will note that some hold that to be blameless it must be all of your life.

    Having said this, there are ongoing ramifications that might disqualify someone - a brawler that killed someone and then met the Lord still has the problem of a death penalty that isn't going away because they were saved between.

    You did not say whether you wanted to discuss a divorced man that remains single, or the one that remarried. I think there is possibly a difference.
     
  3. jdcanady

    jdcanady Member

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    If a pastor divorces, it seems he would be disqualified under the "manages his household well" qualification, regardless if he remarries.
     
  4. exscentric

    exscentric Well-Known Member
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    Yep, but that speaks of a pastor - one that is already a pastor divorcing - not the subject you suggested nor what I was commenting on.
     
  5. jdcanady

    jdcanady Member

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    I think I see what you are saying. Did the man who divorced, prior to salvation, remarry before or after conversion? Let us assume he remarried after salvation, and after 10 years of remarkable Christian service believes God is calling him to preach.

    Does his prior divorce or subsequent remarriage disqualify him?
     
  6. exscentric

    exscentric Well-Known Member
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    There is also the possibility that a divorced man remained unmarried.

    Remarriage after divorce is, according to the Gospels, adultry. Does that fit into the qualifications?
     
  7. Bob Krajcik

    Bob Krajcik New Member

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    Did God endorse and encourage adultery?

    Deuteronomy 24:1 (KJV) When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favour in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house.
    2 And when she is departed out of his house, she may go and be another man's wife.


    http://www.bright.net/~bkrajcik/marriage.htm
     
  8. jdcanady

    jdcanady Member

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    It seems Jesus spoke of that very same question when He said, in Mark 10:1-12, that to remarry after divorce is adultery: in Matt 19:1-9, Jesus says the same thing, but gives an exception of unfaithfulness. No talk about remarriage.

    Added to that, Paul seems to indicate if a believer is left, they should not remarry (I Cor. 7)

    I seem to remember another verse that says if a believer is abandoned, they are "not bound", but I cannot find it.
     
  9. exscentric

    exscentric Well-Known Member
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    "Did God endorse and encourage adultery?" Not that I know of, seems He hates it.

    You need to understand the exception comment in light of the OT law for adultry - He was under the law and fulfilled it.

    ALL passages need to be studied and understood in light of all passages, not just bits and pieces here and there.

    I think there are other treads about div/remarriage, was trying to get to what jd wanted to discuss specifically - seemed to me a side issue of the main.
     
  10. Bob Krajcik

    Bob Krajcik New Member

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    The use of means are used to accomplish the end. If the end result is to be a proper understanding of what God would have understood about a particular matter, then the means used to find that answer should be based on correct information. It is my premise, that saying God does not allow marriage after divorce is a false notion, and so that needs to be examined.

    These matters are understood different ways by different people. Since these different people all say they are in agreement with the Bible, then it seems there must be a few that are not understanding things correctly.

    I suggest my web page for those interested in seeing why I questioned what was said. At the present I don’t have time to be more precise, or concise. http://www.bright.net/~bkrajcik/marriage.htm

    [​IMG]
     
  11. jdcanady

    jdcanady Member

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    What I was getting at is this. Are we holding people to a higher standard than God has indicated in His word? I know that many/most Southern Baptist churches would not consider a man as a candidate for pastor if he has a divorce in his background, even if it was prior to his being saved. Is that a higher standard than God has set?
     
  12. Bob Krajcik

    Bob Krajcik New Member

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    Yes, generally, I think that is a higher standard than God has set.

    What is to be made of a man that has been faithful to God, and has a wife that would refuse living that sort of life? If she would leave, is teh man to be faulted, and judged as having not been spiritual enough? Than was our God not spiritual enough and so that is why there are found those that will not follow Him? I think cases should be judged on their own merit.
     
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