Questions KJVOs Can't Answer.

[skanwmatos]

1. Where was the word of God prior to 1611?

2. What Hebrew word is translated "heaven" in Genesis 1:1 in the KJV and is the Hebrew singular, dual, or plural?

3. If the NKJV is wrong to not translate "logos" in Matthew 5:37 is the KJV equally wrong for not translating "logos" in Hebrews 5:11?

4. From which Greek text is the NKJV New Testament text translated?

5. If the KJV has not been changed since 1611, other than to correct printer's errors and typos, why does Genesis 8:13 read "one" in the 1611 and "first" in the 1769? Or change "fourescore yeere" to "eightieth year?" Or change "God" to "LORD" in 2 Chronicles 28:11? Or "children" to "men" in Ezra 2:22? Or "God" to "LORD" in Isaiah 49:13? Or change "amongst" to "among" 36 times? Or "Apollo" to "Apollos" twice? Or "lift" to "lifted" 50 times? And "hand" to "hands" twice, and "hands" to "hand" once? And "helps in governments" to "helps, governments" in 1 Corinthians 12:28? And "the Lord" to "his Lord" in John 15:20? Or "the Lord" to "our Lord" in 2 Thess 2:14?

Any KJVOs what to give it a try? Time to put up or shut up!

 

[Phillip]

Good questions, Skan!

 

[skanwmatos]

Unfortunately I will not get a good answer.

 

[gb93433]

They can give answers. They will be the same answers we have seen all along.

 

[Slambo]

They can give answers. They will be the same answers we have seen all along.

And they will be rejected by the Bible critics just as well.All of this "cut and paste" malarkey grows old...Come up with somthing original can ya?!

All of those foolish questions have been answered time after time after time.

 

[Bro Tony]

Well, I for one have been reading this debate since January. I have seen these questions asked many times, but have never seen them answered directly. It would be refreshing to read an answer, absent attacks on the people who asked them. Just answer the question, if your answer is true it will stand and that would settle the issues inquired about.

 

[gb93433]

Listen to the answers at http://www.ankerberg.org/TV/ankjasrd.html

Then scroll down to WHICH ENGLISH TRANSLATIONS OF THE BIBLE IS THE BEST and listen to the scholars on both sides speak for themselves.

 

[skanwmatos]

Originally posted by Slambo:
All of those foolish questions have been answered time after time after time.

I have never seen an answer to these questions from a KJVO. If you are KJVO and want to give it a try, great! Here they are again:

1. Where was the pure word of God prior to 1611?

2. What Hebrew word is translated "heaven" in Genesis 1:1 in the KJV and is the Hebrew singular, dual, or plural?

3. If the NKJV is wrong to not translate "logos" in Matthew 5:37 is the KJV equally wrong for not translating "logos" in Hebrews 5:11?

4. From which Greek text is the NKJV New Testament text translated?

5. If the KJV has not been changed since 1611, other than to correct printer's errors and typos, why does Genesis 8:13 read "one" in the 1611 and "first" in the 1769?

Or change "fourescore yeere" to "eightieth year?"

Or change "God" to "LORD" in 2 Chronicles 28:11?

Or "children" to "men" in Ezra 2:22?

Or "God" to "LORD" in Isaiah 49:13?

Or change "amongst" to "among" 36 times?

Or "Apollo" to "Apollos" twice?

Or "lift" to "lifted" 50 times?

And "hand" to "hands" twice, and "hands" to "hand" once?

And "helps in governments" to "helps, governments" in 1 Corinthians 12:28?

And "the Lord" to "his Lord" in John 15:20?

Or "the Lord" to "our Lord" in 2 Thess 2:14?

There you go! I am eagerly awaiting your answers.

 

[David J]

I have been asking these types of questions since I got out of the cultic type of KJVOism. I would love for some KJVO to answer this.

The only thing that I have read from the KJVO Camp concerning these types of questions are double standards, all out lies(refer to Gipp, Riplinger and Ruckman's garbage), silence, or answers that are not really answers.

Come on guys, give it a try!

In Christ,
David J.

 

[Askjo]

Originally posted by gb93433:
Listen to the answers at http://www.ankerberg.org/TV/ankjasrd.html

Then scroll down to WHICH ENGLISH TRANSLATIONS OF THE BIBLE IS THE BEST and listen to the scholars on both sides speak for themselves.

D. A. Waite refuted WHICH ENGLISH TRANSLATIONS OF THE BIBLE IS THE BEST. You need to get a book, "Foes of the King James Bible Refuted" by D. A. Waite.

 

[gb93433]

They will have to study the issues first. When they do they will realize how much they have been lied to and deceived. We need to pray for them. They will distrust those who have lied to them and will be in a land of nothingness until they find better fellowship.

A few years ago a man I began to meet with left a Christian cultish group and he had a hard time. His children were ostracized and the children of the others were told not associate with his children. Thankfully he is doing very well today.

 

[gb93433]

Originally posted by Askjo:
D. A. Waite refuted WHICH ENGLISH TRANSLATIONS OF THE BIBLE IS THE BEST. You need to get a book, "Foes of the King James Bible Refuted" by D. A. Waite.

Did you listen to the debate on the internet?

 

[Pastor_Bob]

Q - Where was the word of God prior to 1611?

A – Where it’s always been. Ps 119:89 “For ever, O LORD, thy word is settled in heaven.” As far as an English translation of God's Word, the Word of God was represented by earlier translations that were true to the majority of extant manuscripts.


Q - What Hebrew word is translated "heaven" in Genesis 1:1 in the KJV and is the Hebrew singular, dual, or plural?

A – Shamayim/singular


Q - If the NKJV is wrong to not translate "logos" in Matthew 5:37 is the KJV equally wrong for not translating "logos" in Hebrews 5:11?

A – Unless I misunderstand the question, the King James Version does translate “logos” in Hebrews 5:11.


Q - From which Greek text is the NKJV New Testament text translated?

A – It is basically the same text as the King James Version. It is the Greek text of Erasmus as popularized and slightly modified by Stephanus and Beza.


Q - If the KJV has not been changed since 1611, other than to correct printer's errors and typos, why does Genesis 8:13 read "one" in the 1611 and "first" in the 1769? Or change "fourescore yeere" to "eightieth year?" Or change "God" to "LORD" in 2 Chronicles 28:11? Or "children" to "men" in Ezra 2:22? Or "God" to "LORD" in Isaiah 49:13? Or change "amongst" to "among" 36 times? Or "Apollo" to "Apollos" twice? Or "lift" to "lifted" 50 times? And "hand" to "hands" twice, and "hands" to "hand" once? And "helps in governments" to "helps, governments" in 1 Corinthians 12:28? And "the Lord" to "his Lord" in John 15:20? Or "the Lord" to "our Lord" in 2 Thess 2:14?

A – There were many changes made throughout the history of the King James Version. Each change was made with the objective of improving the translation and making it more closely reflect the originals. Each edition brought closer the final goal of having a authentic, corrected Bible.

 

[Askjo]

Originally posted by gb93433:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Askjo:
D. A. Waite refuted WHICH ENGLISH TRANSLATIONS OF THE BIBLE IS THE BEST. You need to get a book, "Foes of the King James Bible Refuted" by D. A. Waite.

Did you listen to the debate on the internet? </font>[/QUOTE]I have the transcript from them and read it. I saw it on TV in 1995. I disagree with MVs advocates because they answered FALSELY!

James White said: Well, it's an amazing act of grace that God has deemed it proper to communicate with man who gave His word to inspired prophets and apostles."

D. A. Waite refuted James White by saying: "This is theological error. .... How could men be somehow 'breathed out' by God?" Dr. Waite explained more about that in his book.

James White said: "we, as Christian scholars today,.."

Dr. Waite said: "James White considers himself a scholar. ... I do not think he is very scholarly to call the prophets and apostles "inspired" instead of the Words of God. Inspiration refers to words, not men." Waite explained more about "scholars" in his book.

That's enough. Get a book and read it.

 

[skanwmatos]

Originally posted by Pastor_Bob:
Q - Where was the word of God prior to 1611?

A – Where it’s always been. Ps 119:89 “For ever, O LORD, thy word is settled in heaven.” As far as an English translation of God's Word, the Word of God was represented by earlier translations that were true to the majority of extant manuscripts.

So far, so good.

Q - What Hebrew word is translated "heaven" in Genesis 1:1 in the KJV and is the Hebrew singular, dual, or plural?

A – Shamayim/singular

Nope. The 'yim' ending is a dead give away. It is a dual (plural to us English speakers).

Q - If the NKJV is wrong to not translate "logos" in Matthew 5:37 is the KJV equally wrong for not translating "logos" in Hebrews 5:11?

A – Unless I misunderstand the question, the King James Version does translate “logos” in Hebrews 5:11.

Nope. The KJV does not translate the word twice in the NT. Hebrews 5:11 is one of those times.

Q - From which Greek text is the NKJV New Testament text translated?

A – It is basically the same text as the King James Version. It is the Greek text of Erasmus as popularized and slightly modified by Stephanus and Beza.

Yep. Not the Majority Text. The Textus Receptus.

Q - If the KJV has not been changed since 1611, other than to correct printer's errors and typos, why does Genesis 8:13 read "one" in the 1611 and "first" in the 1769? Or change "fourescore yeere" to "eightieth year?" Or change "God" to "LORD" in 2 Chronicles 28:11? Or "children" to "men" in Ezra 2:22? Or "God" to "LORD" in Isaiah 49:13? Or change "amongst" to "among" 36 times? Or "Apollo" to "Apollos" twice? Or "lift" to "lifted" 50 times? And "hand" to "hands" twice, and "hands" to "hand" once? And "helps in governments" to "helps, governments" in 1 Corinthians 12:28? And "the Lord" to "his Lord" in John 15:20? Or "the Lord" to "our Lord" in 2 Thess 2:14?

A – There were many changes made throughout the history of the King James Version. Each change was made with the objective of improving the translation and making it more closely reflect the originals. Each edition brought closer the final goal of having a authentic, corrected Bible.

Yep. Very good answer. But you are not KJVO. You are like me. KJVPrefered.

 

[Trotter]

What? No answers, Askjo?

 

[skanwmatos]

I see that no KJVOs have so far found the courage to answer the questions. How utterly sad.

 

[Slambo]

No one wants to play your Alexadrian games..You have no final authority and you want others to sink to your level..Get a life!!

 

[skanwmatos]

So, you admit you can't answer the questions? All you can do is call me lying names? Typical KJVO. Long on mouth but short on brains.

 

[gb93433]

Originally posted by Askjo:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by gb93433:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Askjo:
D. A. Waite refuted WHICH ENGLISH TRANSLATIONS OF THE BIBLE IS THE BEST. You need to get a book, "Foes of the King James Bible Refuted" by D. A. Waite.

Did you listen to the debate on the internet? </font>[/QUOTE]I have the transcript from them and read it. I saw it on TV in 1995. I disagree with MVs advocates because they answered FALSELY!

</font>[/QUOTE]What did they say that was wrong and that you would agree with Riplinger on?

What are your thoughts about Gail Riplinger's substance, if you call it that?

What you wrote earlier is nothing of substance. Give me the entire quote in its context. I hope you are not being like Riplinger and trying to build a case based on quotes out of context and prooftexting. You noticed that several on the panel accused her of not telling the truth.