John seemed to be saying that whatever the Father is that makes Him God, Jesus has that same "stuff", and the 2 of them are both God, and not the same person though!Thanks for posting his notes Jerome.
I disagree with Hart's conclusion. The use of θεος shows the qualitave equivalence of the Son and the Father. An equative statment as well. Namely being Jesus and the Father are one being. I think "God" is superior to "god" here. Reading the little "g" to me implies Jesus is lesser in worth and value than the Father. If not a separate "god" all together. The use of the predicate nominative is the perfect way to express the equative and qualitve equivalncy in nature(being), yet sperate persons of Jesus and the Father.
I honestly have a hard time seeing how Hart can say the above and still see "god" as better than "God".
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