Featured Repentance

What if she were sorry, stopped the sin of adultery, then two years later did it again? Is she still disqualified as having repented? according to HP's word.

 

The type of repentance I see you espousing HP is that of perfection. Unless one has repented of their sins they are not saved, thus, the only proof of salvation is that they never do those sins again. Therefore, according to your logic, if one sins a sin that was once repented of it was therefore never repented of and thus that person is a liar and is not saved.

Tell us how you never have done the same sin more than once. Tell us that HP and maybe we will take another look at your theory.

 

No I am not. Stop telling me what I am, and am not doing. You are speaking out of ignorance. Let me give you an example.

When a J.W. comes to my door, I know they deny the deity of Christ. I often take them to John 1:1. Their NWT Bible says: "In the beginning was God, and the Word was with God and the Word was a god.
I tell them it doesn't say that; it is a mistranslation, deliberately translated to mislead them and others. They tell me I have an inferior translation. I tell them that there is no indefinite article in the Greek. What stops the argument is when I get my Greek NT nearby and ask them to read the verse for me. I can read it; they can't.

You are like those J.W.'s. I can read the Greek; you can't. Don't tell me I am translating from English back to Greek--whatever that means??

I am not the one making false allegations. Get a book and read something about Bible translations. Read particularly how the KJV came into existence. Learn something!

The issue of Bible translations is a big deal. We have an entire forum devoted to just that topic. It is that important.

You are right. It is a big deal to teach the falsehood that repent means to be sorry for your sins. That is error and will simply lead people to hell instead of leading them to Christ. Remember, Judas was sorry for his sins too.

Those who translated the Bible did just what that word said they did. They translated. That means they went from the Greek to the English. They didn't use dictionaries. They used Greek Lexicons. That is a book which translates Greek to English. They didn't need English dictionaries. Whatever for? They weren't going from English to English, but from Greek and Hebrew to English.

No, you reject knowledge. There is a certain kind of person that does that. You can find his name in Proverbs. It is not wise to reject knowledge. Repentance is not sorrow for sins.

Yes. I can go to any verse in the Bible and look at what John Calvin has to say.

Don't you think you have committed enough slander for the day, just on the KJV alone?

 

Would you have us to believe HP that you have never committed the same sin twice since your conversion? Are you serious? You never broke a commandment more than once?

I notice how you always evade Steaver's question here. Why not answer it HP?

 

We are speaking of salvation.
2Cor.7:10 where the phrase "godly sorrow" is used is directed to Christians, not to the unsaved.

 

You would have to be more specific. I see more posts by you about what Steaver has posted then by Steaver himself. Have you committed the same sin twice since you have been saved?

 

What I can see is one short statement from Steaver, and then an entire paragraph by you--all those words that you have put in Steaver's mouth which he did not say. So I cannot comment. You will have to ask him yourself.

If Steaver, for example, is using Moriah's definition of "repentance" (which isn't repentance at all), that changes the whole meaning of his statement. Repentance is not being sorry for your sins.

 

There is no such thing as "godly sorrow," when it comes to the unsaved. "Godly sorrow" means "God-like". No unsaved depraved individual is God-like. The word or phrase "Godly sorrow" is used in 2Cor.7:10 and refers to Christians only, not the unsaved.

 

It is simple: Repentance is not and has nothing to do with: "being sorry for your sins."