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Romans 5

Discussion in '2004 Archive' started by Craigbythesea, Oct 9, 2004.

  1. Craigbythesea

    Craigbythesea Active Member

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    In the KJV we read in Rom. 5:

    2. By whom also we have access by faith into this grace wherein we stand, and rejoice in hope of the glory of God.
    3. And not only so, but we glory in tribulations also: knowing that tribulation worketh patience;

    In the Greek text we have the very same word (kauchometha) in both verses, but in verse 2 the KJV has “rejoice” and in verse 3 the KJV has “glory.” What does the word “glory” mean and how does it differ from the word “rejoice?”

    [​IMG]
     
  2. Ransom

    Ransom Active Member

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    It doesn't. "Glory in" and "rejoice in" are synonymous. The KJV translators sometimes used English synonyms to translate the same Greek terms, just to add variety to their style.

    On the other hand, variety for variety's sake isn't always necessarily a good thing. Sometimes the translators tended to obscure the author's parallelism.
     
  3. Phillip

    Phillip <b>Moderator</b>

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    Ransom, maybe during the 17th century, but I don't think "Glory in" and "rejoice in" are quite as synonomous as you want them to be. "Rejoice" tends to imply an action, whereas "Glory" is more descriptive.

    You may be right as to why the translators used the different words, but I don't think it was such a good idea, especially in this case. Does the Greek word imply an action verb or a description?
     
  4. Ransom

    Ransom Active Member

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    Phillip said:

    Ransom, maybe during the 17th century, but I don't think "Glory in" and "rejoice in" are quite as synonomous as you want them to be.

    When you are reading a 17th-century translation, you have to read it through 17th-century eyes. Otherwise, the consequence will be anachronism and confusion.
     
  5. Phillip

    Phillip <b>Moderator</b>

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    I now understand what you said and agree. Thank you! [​IMG]
     
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