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Salvation from c200AD to 1517?

Discussion in 'Free-For-All Archives' started by Matt Black, Apr 5, 2005.

  1. BobRyan

    BobRyan Well-Known Member

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    They took a pretty clear stand on "extermination" of heretics (Catholic dissenters) and of "jews" in Lateran IV for example.

    And the RCC herself admits to some of this carnage.

    Consider the following news stories from the Vatican City.


    She never followed through on the promises listed above -- but the Pope managed to "confess" that there was no valid Bible based reason for exterminating Jews.

    In Christ,

    Bob
     
  2. BobRyan

    BobRyan Well-Known Member

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    Catholic Digest 11/1997 pg 100
    The question:
    A Baptist family who lives across the street gave me a book called the “Trail of Blood”, by J.M. Carroll. It attacks Catholic doctrine on infant Baptism, indulgences, purgatory, and so on. But I am writing to learn if there is anything in history that would justify the following quotation:
    The answer from Fr. Ken Ryan:
    In the article above – Fr. Ken Ryan makes the meaning of “extermination” of that group and “many other groups” clear for modern readers.
    Catholic apologists like Catholic Digest’s Fr. Ken Ryan quoted above often argue that the RCC isn't accountable for the Inquisition, since the state carried out the torturing and the executions. It was the RCC who defined these people as "heretics", however, and the RCC handed them over to the state (John 19:11).

    We know from the decrees of Popes and councils that the RCC viewed itself as having authority over the state.

    The Fourth Lateran Council, for example, the ecumenical council that dogmatized transubstantiation, declared (http://www.fordham.edu/halsall/source/lat4-c3.html):
    Other councils, such as Vienna, issued anti-Semitic decrees that ordered the persecution of Jews. The persecution of other groups, such as the Waldensians, was also ordered by the RCC.
    For example, Pope Innocent VIII issued a bull in 1487 ordering that people "rise up in arms against" and "tread under foot" the Waldensians.
    Roman Catholic and former Jesuit Peter de Rosa writes in Vicars of Christ (Crown Publishers, 1988),
    The Catholic historian von Dollinger writes in The Pope and the Council,
     
  3. Matt Black

    Matt Black Well-Known Member
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    Yes, but this answers my 'salvation' question how, exactly? Just because a group were persecuted by the Catholics doesn't make them saved eg: Muslims and Jews

    Yours in Christ

    Matt
     
  4. BobRyan

    BobRyan Well-Known Member

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    Incidentally - Fr. Ken Ryan's attempt to cloud the issue with "civil AND religious" authorities is mentioned in the previous post as well.

    So what was the "answer" to the "GREAT question"?

    And most impressive of all ...

     
  5. BobRyan

    BobRyan Well-Known Member

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    I was simply expanding on Randy's point about who these people were - (and Wycliff, Huss, Jerome, Luther, Calvin)... they could "all read". And much of their work was promoted via documents/papers/pamphlets after the press was invented in Luther's day.

    As for the fact that Enoch, Elijah, Samuel, David, Moses the saints of Heb 11 were all "Saved" pre-cross...

    Are you saying that you question that?

    Recall that Islam is really a case of a Christian-ish Arab "deciding" to carve up scripture and justifying it by calling it "Islam". Then his "traditional sayings" were later compiled into what is the Koran today.

    He STARTS with the COMPLETE Bible and GOES to a chop-and-slice version of it -- claiming that the OT was corrupted from the original documents and claiming that Paul was not really a true Apostle of God.

    Islam has the same problem today that they had when Mohammed first saw the chance to take advantage of the Arabs and build a following.

    And as for the idea that Muslims and Jews were the only ones "exterminated" -- the quotes above disprove that in triplicate. The RCC was going after the Saints of God.

    In Christ,

    Bob
     
  6. Matt Black

    Matt Black Well-Known Member
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    No of course not. What I am asking is this: if the Catholic and Orthodox systems of salvation were so corrupt that people could not and still cannot be saved by them (the 'false gospel'), where is the evidence for an alternative method of salvation from whenever it is said that the Catholic Church arose until 1517 whereby men could be saved (the 'true gospel')?

    Yours in Christ

    Matt
     
  7. BobRyan

    BobRyan Well-Known Member

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    My argument is that having a lack of information (such as the Jews had) on some points Pre-Cross did not stop them from being saved. It also would not stop Catholics from being saved all through the dark ages as their armies killed each other (rival Pope armies) and killed dissenting Catholics (Protestants" And killed Jews.

    Their error "alone" and ignorance "Alone" was not enough to stop salvation. Deliberate error "yes" and turning from the drawing of the Holy Spirit? "yes" that would stop them and would stop anyone.

    Your assumption is that there is a pristine "gospel line" that can be drawn at every point (salvation by knowing an arbitrary amount of truth) -- a doctrinal statement outside of which all others are lost.

    The bible model is the one in Romans 2 where even those with NO scripture may participate in the New Covenant if they choose to yield to the Holy Spirit.

    In Christ,

    Bob
     
  8. Matt Black

    Matt Black Well-Known Member
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    No, it is not my doctrinal assumption, it is that of those here who claim that the message of Catholic Church is not one by which men may not be saved

    Yours in Christ

    Matt
     
  9. Pastor Larry

    Pastor Larry <b>Moderator</b>
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    Matt,

    Why do you presume that the true gospel was not preached during the time of RC dominance? That is a huge assumption on your part. It is beyond dispute, biblically, that people cannot be saved by teh official soteriology of the Catholic church. There is no biblical basis to say otherwise. But to pretend that no one preached the true gospel in that era is a huge assumption that is unwarranted.
     
  10. Matt Black

    Matt Black Well-Known Member
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    Let's have some evidence of that, then

    Yours in Christ

    Matt
     
  11. BobRyan

    BobRyan Well-Known Member

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    Ok - but given the statements Catholics make about anabaptists prior to the 12th century (as early as the 3rd century) would you agree that "other doctrinal views" were there all along?

    In Christ,

    Bob
     
  12. FLMike

    FLMike Guest

    Is this really beyond dispute? Catholics, of course, would dispute it. I believe most Orthodox would dispute it. Many non-Catholic Christians would dispute it. Are they all not just wrong, but obviously, blatantly wrong?
     
  13. tragic_pizza

    tragic_pizza New Member

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    I'm curious as to what the particulars of the Catholic soteriology which would keep people from coming to the knowledge of Jesus Christ.

    Do they not get wet enough when baptized? Is it that they see their salvation as something which requires action, not just sitting in a particular pew at a particular time and walking down front of a particular church at the precise moment prescribed?
     
  14. BobRyan

    BobRyan Well-Known Member

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    Now THAT is funny!

    The infant "get's saved" by "getting wet enough"!!!

    What a replacement for the "APPEAL to God for a clean conscience"!! Magic water!!

    It is just tooo funny!
     
  15. BobRyan

    BobRyan Well-Known Member

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    You have to ask yourself if the magic powers of the priest - and the magic waters of Baptism are REALLY a substitute for the Word of God.

    If they are -- then maybe that IS the way to be saved INSTEAD of what (Pope) Peter said in 1Pet 3 (NOT the magic touch of sacramental water "BUT the APPEAL to God for a Clean Conscience!")

    In Christ,

    Bob
     
  16. Matt Black

    Matt Black Well-Known Member
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    OK, I'll ask my question again,as there are no takers: where is the evidence of this 'true saving Gospel' being preached prior to 1517?

    Yours in Christ

    Matt
     
  17. FLMike

    FLMike Guest

    How do infants get saved in your view? Does it involve an APPEAL to God for a clean conscience? Even if baptism does nothing to save infant Catholics, does it actually prevent them from getting saved?

    And what about adult Catholics? How does Catholic teaching prevent them from being saved?
     
  18. FLMike

    FLMike Guest

    It's one thing to deny that "the magic powers of the priest and the magic waters of Baptism" actually save, or are part of being saved, or whatever you think the Catholic Church (and the Orthodox, don't keep forgetting them) teaches. It's another to claim, as you seem to be doing, that these very things prevent one from being saved.

    The question is not "do Catholic particulars save?" but "what about Catholic teaching prevents one from being saved?"
     
  19. Matt Black

    Matt Black Well-Known Member
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    Ok - but given the statements Catholics make about anabaptists prior to the 12th century (as early as the 3rd century) would you agree that "other doctrinal views" were there all along?

    In Christ,

    Bob
    </font>[/QUOTE]The Anabaptists originated in the 1520s. Where is your evidence - primary source documents - to suggest otherwise?

    Yours in Christ

    Matt
     
  20. BobRyan

    BobRyan Well-Known Member

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    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Anabaptists

    The belief from the NT times has continued - that we should follow the NT text and not follow the traditions of man.

    In Christ,

    Bob
     
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