Tampering With the Word of God

ok, list where the KJV tampers with God's Word. i know it differs fr the standard bible in many places, but which passages do u have in mind?

 

P.S. In case you don't understand what version I believe is God's Holy Word. It's the K.J.V. "

I have three different books on my computer desk
called the "King James Version". One says it is
a reprint of the 1611 edition.
One doesn't say which edition it is, but it is
very similiar to the KJV1769 family of editions.
One claims to be a KJV1873 edition. Which of
these do you believe to be the "right" KJV?
"All of them are the same" is the answer
some give.

"And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy,
God shall take away his PART out of the book of life,
and out of the holy city, and from the things which
are written in this book. Rev 22:19"

The following requirement comes from scholarship
and legal: Denote the source of the quotation.
Failure to do this is rude and will lead people to
begin to lack confidence on your believability.

Here is how to do it:

Revelation 22:19 (TMB = Third Millennium Bible):

And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy,
God shall take away his part out of the Book of Life,
and out of the Holy City, and from the things which
are written in this book.

Except for the capital letters, your quote looks
much like the TMB.

 

Cline, BY WHOSE AUTHORITY do you claim that only the KJV is God's word in English?

The Geneva Bible was the AV 1611's immediate predecessor as the "standard" Bible of England, and the AV differs from it in more than one place. Yjat leaves the possibility that the AV translators "tampered" with God's word, right?

 

Always amazed by these posts. Picking one version and claiming IT as the only Word of God. Does translating the Bible into another language tamper with it?

 

I remember a sermon once that showed how the KJBible uses the word "Hell" in all the same places...in other words, if it says "Hell" in one verse, it will say "Hell" in other verses it's discussed. But in the other versions, in one place it may say "hell", while elsewhere it'll have another word & still another,etc, changing the meaning.

I tried to search this out & came across someone's site with tons of info on such changes...it is "REALLY" a long list! I do not understand how there can be so many discrepancies & it not cause real alarm.

Also, for those who do not prefer the Bible, of those versions you do use, how do you "determine" which one is true?

If you're reading one & then have to go to another & then another, don't that get tiresome? or confusing? How do you "pick" or decide which is your straight-stick?

 

Ya, just like the Hebrew and Greek.

I know what you mean. I can't figure out why there are so many discrepancies between the KJV and the original languages in this area.

By using a variety of translations, comparing and studying.

Nope. It's awesome - I learn so much more about scripture.

They are all the straight stick, once you understand how, through study, to interpret them.

Question for Kidz-4-HIM: If the "Bible claims PLENARY VERBAL INSPRIRATION (complete word-for-word) for itself, and DIVINE PRESERVATION of those words Ps 12:6-7" and "To change the words will change the meanings of and thus the teaching (cf. Jer 1:9, 11:6)", then how was this true in 1605, and why did the KJV translators "change the words" instead of just accepting what was plenarily verbally inspired (complete word-for-word) in 1605? And Granny, didn't they have a straight stick in 1605?

 

ok, let's see if we can simplify the issue a little.

when i 1st used a wooden ruler in, um, the 1800s, it was far straighter than anything i'd used. in fact, for lack of a rule, i'd use the straight edge of a postcard or hardback book--anything better than freehand.

then came the steel rule--the straight edge seemed straighter than the wooden rule's -- no nicks.

then u read abt lasers that r now used in levels used in indoor decorating. those be straighter than wooden n steel rules.

same thing has happened w the measurement n tracking of time--the hourglass was far more accurate than earlier tools. then came the wind-up chronograph. then the quartz crystal. then the atomic clock.

the KJB no doubt was the most accurate in its day due to the good Anglican scholarship underlying it (which isn't infallible, we're informed by KJBO scholars, concerning the LXX, but i digress ). since then, other scholars have come along, n accuracy has been finetuned.

wld we wanna say that the KJB wasn't a straight rule, that it isn't even a ruler at all? that's the typical overreaction fr KJBOism. however, MVers don't condemn the KJB, notwithstanding its older level of accuracy as compared to today's. their ALL straight sticks, tiny kinks n all. even for the KJB itself, no 2 revisions r identical; things continued to get finetuned--thru the Vinegar, Britches, Adulterer's, Cambridge, Oxford, n other revisions.

so there's no need to nitpick.

 

And Granny, didn't they have a straight stick in 1605?


BrianT~Why yes, they did...whatever's the KJBible's kinfolk is. That's why I said what I did in that other thread about my great-greatgrandparents...they died before I was born, but here I am! And you said, "yup, there you are."
I came from "like". The KJB comes from "like".

Dear Lord, please continue to keep me on the straight "old paths".

 

"For I testify unto every man that heareth the WORDS of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book: Rev 22:18"

Now, how did John know that his book of his vision was going to end up as the last book of the accepted canon? Not that we SHOULD go messing around with the words of the other books, but I think the "curse" above only applies to itself, the book of Revelation.

 

I agree. But why didn't they just use it, instead of replacing it? Did it stop being straight?

And are you saying that multiple, differing sticks, can all be straight at the same time despite their differences?

And also help us to see how old the paths really are. Amen.

 

Let the Word of God be intact.

or

You will tremble at the intact Word of God.

or

Get you out of Heaven.

or

Plagues will fall on you.

or

Fear the Lord!!!!

To fear the Lord is to get your hands off from the intact Word of God.

Not to fear the Lord is to pervert the intact Word of God.

Not to fear the Lord is to corrupt the intact Word of God.

 

God help us if we were a Christian before 1611!

 

Trouble is, there aint no "like". Each BV is unique.

 

Deut. 4:2, NASB- You shall not add to the word which I am commanding you, nor take away from it, that you may keep the commandments of the LORD your God which I command you.

God didn't want His word tampered with in C.1450 BC nor in C. 90 AD. The "curse" may be for all time in all 'books'.

 

How would you become a Christian without the Tindale Bible before 1611?

 

The KJV is not God's word. It's a translation of God's word.

 

Askjo, do YOU have the "intact' word of God? If so, where's your proof?

 

How would you become a Christian without the Tindale Bible before 1611? </font>[/QUOTE]Same way one does now-by the grace and power of JESUS CHRIST.

The Tyndale Bible wouldn't do a GERMAN much good in 1611 or in 2004.