"The Good Pleasure of His Will"

We understand this from Jesus

WE judge after He flesh, I judge no man

We are condemned already,

Since all judgement s given to the Son and Jesus does not judge man, We had to be condemned , not as a man, but before. We are condemned as spiritual beings, souls. Sin is not physical, our bodies do not sin.

We are spiritually condemned sinners, Being human is the opportunity of by one death, many can be saved

 

Again, no scripture.

The Archangel


Sent from my iPhone using Tapatalk

 

I thought you knew scripture, Are these verse not familiar? Well quoted verses

Jhn 5:22 Jesus said

For the Father judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgment unto the Son:

Jhn 8:15 Jesus said

Ye judge after the flesh; I judge no man.

Jhn 3:18 Jesus said

¶
He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.

How can Adam and Eve be condemned as human or flesh ?

 

Snip You do realize these verses—being ripped from their contexts—don’t mean what you are claiming they mean? The passages you cite here have a point to make, but that point is not the one you have seemed to pull from the nether regions of your imagination.

What do you do with Philippians 3:

20 But our citizenship is in heaven, and from it we await a Savior, the Lord Jesus Christ,
21 who will transform our lowly body to be like his glorious body, by the power that enables him even to subject all things to himself. - Philippians 3:20-21

Clearly Jesus is portrayed to have a body and clearly it is different than ours. What is more, as Paul argues, our bodies will be transformed to be bodies like His. Therefore, it is the case that Christ has a new glorified body and we too will have a new body in the eternal kingdom.

The Archangel


Sent from my iPhone using Tapatalk

 

The verse were not ripped from context. Please provide your evidence

Jesus body was proof He was resurrected. as you say Why do you claim a this earthly body is to be glorious?
The glorious body will not be flesh and blood.
1Co 15:50
Now this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption.

Our body will the like the angels

Mat 22:29
¶
Jesus answered and said unto them, Ye do err, not knowing the scriptures, nor the power of God.
Mat 22:30
For in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as the angels of God in heaven.

It is wrong to place the characteristics of a human that we are familiar to speculate for Heaven, clearly when scripture says otherwise


i never said we would not have a body ., just not flesh and blood. I said our souls are most important

 

I notice you didn’t deal with the Philippians passage at all. That speaks volumes.

The Archangel


Sent from my iPhone using Tapatalk

 

I mentioned the word "glorious " from that passage and that flesh and blood will not inherit Heaven. So we will have to have a body like the angels.

 

The point of the verses given was Adam was not condemned as a man but before as a spiritual being or soul.

 

The verses given make no such point.

And, you seem to be intentionally ignoring where Philippians says Jesus has a body and our current bodies will be transformed to become like His. Of course that body is "glorified" but it is not "spiritual" as we see Jesus eating food and being touched by the likes of Thomas.

The Archangel

 

NOT THE ONE VERSE. the previous verses of Jesus not judging

 

You mean John 8:15?

Yeah... Let's look at the full context...

[12] Again Jesus spoke to them, saying, “I am the light of the world. Whoever follows me will not walk in darkness, but will have the light of life.” [13] So the Pharisees said to him, “You are bearing witness about yourself; your testimony is not true.” [14] Jesus answered, “Even if I do bear witness about myself, my testimony is true, for I know where I came from and where I am going, but you do not know where I come from or where I am going. [15] You judge according to the flesh; I judge no one. [16] Yet even if I do judge, my judgment is true, for it is not I alone who judge, but I and the Father who sent me. [17] In your Law it is written that the testimony of two people is true. [18] I am the one who bears witness about myself, and the Father who sent me bears witness about me.” [19] They said to him therefore, “Where is your Father?” Jesus answered, “You know neither me nor my Father. If you knew me, you would know my Father also.” [20] These words he spoke in the treasury, as he taught in the temple; but no one arrested him, because his hour had not yet come. (John 8:12–20 ESV)

DA Carson comments:

Sadly, in assessing who Jesus is, his opponents are judging by human standards (kata tēn sarka, lit. ‘according to the flesh’). This is probably even worse than judging ‘by mere appearances’ (7:24); here they are resorting to the criteria of flesh, of fallen mankind in a fallen world, without the compelling control of the Spirit (cf. 3:3–7). They see his ‘flesh’, as it were, but never contemplate the possibility that he could be the Word made flesh (1:14). To regard Christ by so limited a set of criteria is to weigh him ‘from a worldly point of view’ (2 Cor. 5:16; kata sarka). As for himself, Jesus declares, I pass judgment on no-one. It will not do (with Bruce, p. 189, and others) to argue that Jesus changes the meaning of the verb krinō here from ‘assess’ to ‘pass judicial sentence’, and conclude that Jesus does not judge in the sense that he came into the world to save, not to condemn 3:17. That is true, of course, but the line of thought would be the merest pun. Jesus means, rather, that he does not judge anyone at all the way his opponents do—i.e. he does not appeal to superficial, ‘fleshly’ criteria, and accordingly mark people up or down. If that is what his opponents mean by judging, Jesus does not do any of it. Indeed, as Bernard (1. 295) remarks, the Synoptics record the charge that Jesus was not discriminating enough (Mk. 2:16; Lk. 7:39; 15:2; cf. Jn. 8:11).

But that does not mean that Jesus does not judge in any sense. His purpose was to save, not to condemn, but his very presence guarantees that humanity divides around him, and a large part of it is correspondingly judged by him (cf. 9:39). Indeed, the Son of Man has been given unique authority to judge (5:27), precisely because of who he is. And quite apart from eschatological judgment, if Jesus assesses, even now, a person or situation, his judgment will inevitably prove right (alēthinē, i.e. genuine, ultimate, and therefore right), because in this area as in every other Jesus does not stand alone but with the Father who sent him. Jesus judges only as he hears from the Father, and thus his judgment is just (cf. notes on 5:30).

D. A. Carson, The Gospel according to John, The Pillar New Testament Commentary (Leicester, England; Grand Rapids, MI: Inter-Varsity Press; W.B. Eerdmans, 1991), 339–340.​

Clearly, Jesus isn't talking about the kind of "judgement" you would assign to Him. What is more, there are countless verses that describe Jesus as "judge" which clearly contradict your notions here of "Jesus judging no one" that lead to your cockamamie idea(s) of Adam and Eve being "spirit beings" when they sinned. Here is but a sampling...

• “I can do nothing on my own. As I hear, I judge, and my judgment is just, because I seek not my own will but the will of him who sent me. (John 5:30 ESV)
  
  
• Jesus said, “For judgment I came into this world, that those who do not see may see, and those who see may become blind.” (John 9:39 ESV)

Snip

The Archangel

 

Biblical. but not the point of the conversation Jesus was having . In addition to the commentary you present, which has nothing to do with my point, Jesus said I judge no one,,, we add or us man
The point was Jesus does not judge us as man. We are spiritual beings . ot souls

We are condemned already
We are to be judge again after death or rapture.
There is not condemnation or judgment as humans


If there is no condemnation as humans, and yet we are condemned , then we had to be condemned BEFORE being human,
thus Adam is not the cause of my sin because He was Human when he sinned in Gen.
but since we are condemned and it happened before we were human, we had to exist PRE HUMAN, spiritual beings or our souls were sinners before being human.

if you present reply to post , try to at least understand and respond on the same subject , not unrelated verses or points

 

Are you kidding???

You say, "the commentary you present, which has nothing to do with my point" which is exactly the point I was making. You are making a point that the text itself does not make. You may want it to say what you are claiming it says, but it doesn't. You simply don't get to make the Bible say what you want it to say.

Again... This is Gnosticism.

The Archangel

 

Gnostics suggests that all flesh is bad and all spiritual is good so therefore Jesus was not in the flesh but an illusion.

I present the opposite, we are spiritual sinners and our flesh cannot sin but is a necessary to redemption

The text or explanation I present is Biblical but was not the point Jesus was making.

I use the text correctly and apply it as written, Your position is to limit the verses someway to fit your understanding or conditions.

I do not "make "verse say anything but offer them as written,

 

Then explain the following:

[1] But a man named Ananias, with his wife Sapphira, sold a piece of property, [2] and with his wife's knowledge he kept back for himself some of the proceeds and brought only a part of it and laid it at the apostles' feet. [3] But Peter said, “Ananias, why has Satan filled your heart to lie to the Holy Spirit and to keep back for yourself part of the proceeds of the land? [4] While it remained unsold, did it not remain your own? And after it was sold, was it not at your disposal? Why is it that you have contrived this deed in your heart? You have not lied to man but to God.” [5] When Ananias heard these words, he fell down and breathed his last. And great fear came upon all who heard of it. [6] The young men rose and wrapped him up and carried him out and buried him.

[7] After an interval of about three hours his wife came in, not knowing what had happened. [8] And Peter said to her, “Tell me whether you sold the land for so much.” And she said, “Yes, for so much.” [9] But Peter said to her, “How is it that you have agreed together to test the Spirit of the Lord? Behold, the feet of those who have buried your husband are at the door, and they will carry you out.” [10] Immediately she fell down at his feet and breathed her last. When the young men came in they found her dead, and they carried her out and buried her beside her husband. [11] And great fear came upon the whole church and upon all who heard of these things. (Acts 5:1–11 ESV)
​

If you were correct, we'd expect that neither Ananias nor Sapphira should have been struck dead for "Lying to God," which is obviously a sin.

What about Moses striking the rock a second time? Was that a sin? Why was he disallowed from entering the Promised Land if you are correct?

What about Matthew 5

[27] “You have heard that it was said, ‘You shall not commit adultery.’ [28] But I say to you that everyone who looks at a woman with lustful intent has already committed adultery with her in his heart. [29] If your right eye causes you to sin, tear it out and throw it away. For it is better that you lose one of your members than that your whole body be thrown into hell. [30] And if your right hand causes you to sin, cut it off and throw it away. For it is better that you lose one of your members than that your whole body go into hell. (Matthew 5:27–30 ESV)​

If you are correct, you'd have to argue that Jesus Himself is wrong here. Clearly adultery is a sin, and He says "if your right eye causes you to sin," suggesting the eye is a contributing factor of the adultery. The eye is a part of the body, is it not? Jesus seems to say it can cause you to sin. So, Jesus says you can sin in the body. What about your right hand? That part of your body can cause the rest of your body to sin, too? How is Jesus wrong here?

The Archangel

 

By the words of Jesus. one can sin with our minds and not our body,

Mat 5:28
But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.

It is so important cut off you r body parts iof it will keep you from sinning Matt 5 as you point out

The body does not sin but can suffer the effects of sin. The soul sinneth

 

But you ignore the Acts passage. We’re Ananias and Saphira not killed bodily for lying to God?

The Archangel


Sent from my iPhone using Tapatalk

 

yes, but what does that mean?
Souls sin, the body can suffer because of our sin., Just the body does not sin, it is not capable of sin because sin is spiritual not physical

 

But that's not what you said... Obviously Ananias and Saphira sin in the body and they die because of it. So, from the text of Acts 5, the body does sin. From other places we see the soul sins. This demonstrates man to be a union between body and soul, not a bifurcated entity.

The Archangel

 

Sin, is disobedience to a God who is a Spirit. We worship (and sin) spiritually or with our souls, The part of us that is able to respond to things of God not the physical stimuli. We cannot respond to a hurt knee with our souls