The KJB VS the usual suspects

Your repeating of your false allegation does not make it supposedly become true. You continue to bear false witness in disobedience to the Scriptures. KJV-only advocates do not obey clear commands in the one imperfect English translation that they claim to accept and defend.

 

What's a "KJB"? A new Russian secret police ?

I neither hate the KJV nor the video (Nor you, of course), although it's mostly the "usual suspects"; the same ole KJVO horse feathers, largely derived from Dr. Wilkinson's & Riplinger's hooey.

 

That's because you, & them, have, for some strange reason, made the KJV(NOT "KJB"!) THE standard English Bible translation, without any directive from GOD to do so.

The KJVO myth has NO Scriptural support, a fact which automatically makes it false. (Unless, as a RC does, you believe that "traditions" carry the same weight as Scripture.)

 

Sir, the KJV calls Joseph Jesus' father in Luke 2:41 41 Now his parents went to Jerusalem every year at the feast of the passover.

And Mary calls Joseph His father in Luke 2:48 48 And when they saw him, they were amazed: and his mother said unto him, Son, why hast thou thus dealt with us? behold, thy father and I have sought thee sorrowing.

I explained the "whys" of this previously, but in case you missed it - In that time/place, under both Jewish & Roman law, a man was considered the father of his wife's children born during their marriage, even if she gave birth on her wedding day. Thus, for all human legal purposes, Joseph was considered the legal earthly father of Jesus, being responsible for His upkeep during His earthly childhood. Mary was not some bimbo; she knew this. And please note that "father" is lower-case in V.48, but capitalized in V.49. Mary & Joseph both knew Jesus had been conceived by the HOLY SPIRIT, but both Mary & Luke, in the verses I cited above, knew that Joseph was considered as Jesus' father according to the law of the land, if not in reality.

 

'Tis for the same reasons you ignore the "Easter" goof in the KJV's Acts 12:4 & the ADDITION of the words "and shalt be" in the KJV's Rev. 16:5, violating God's command to not ADD to His word.

 

No; what MATTERS is that the KJVO myth is clearly a false doctrine, largely propagated by booksellers wanting to make some $$ by peddling their wares, with TRUTH cast aside.

 

Not to mention the AV 1611 is chock-full of such notes !

 

Know what "Bah ! Humbug !" means"

At that time, there were NO readings, variant or otherwise!

Sneaky Snake was saying, in so many words, that God had lied to A&E.

 

I reject the KJVO position because it's CLEARLY FALSE, & HAS BEEN PROVENFALSE !

Just because a given version doesn't match the KJV doesn't mean that version is corrupt. That's equal to a Chevy lover saying all Fords are junk.

The KJV has its share of goofs & booboos; I pointed out a couple in a previous post in this thread. (Remember, ALL Bible translations in whatever language are the products of God's perfect word being handled by imperfect men.)

Besides, the KJV is not in the English style in common use worldwide. It was made for the British of the 17th century, just as the Model T was made for the roads of the 1910s.

 

Dr. A, those other versions don't change the KJV (NOT "KJB"!) at all; they stand alone, as all Bible translations do. As the makers of the KJV are all deceased, it cannot be changed, any more than a Shakespeare play can be.

 

In your mind.

 

That is what you are doing, casting the truth asided. I do not read where you defend the correct readings of our English translations of God's word. Against the one Easter reading for Passover is the best it seems that you can do.

 

Newp - in TRUTH.

 

There's "the love of money is THE root of ALL evil", in 1 Tim. 6:10. There's the aforementioned ADDITION of the words "and shalt be" in Rev. 16:5. There's the OMISSION of "through Our Lord Jesus Christ" in Jude 25.

I can make a list of KJV goofs a yard long, but that's not the theme of this thread, which is Dr. A's video & subsequent remarks.

Please clue us in if you find ANY Scriptural support for the KJVO myth.

 

Really? Why would you knowingly believe something you thought was not true? No one does. I agree that KJO is a mistaken view. My complant is, I do not see where you are defending a correct reading of the word of God other than Passover is a better translation than what you call a goof.

 

This thread isn't about defending correct readings. It's about Dr. A's video & his subsequent remarks. Naturally, the discussion has shifted to a pro & anti-KJVO discourse.

But, to satisfy your questioning-the CORRECT reading of part of 1 Tim. 6:10 is, "The love of silver (money) is A root of ALL SORTS of evil."

And Rev. 16:5 reads correctly without the extra words "and shalt be" added to it-words that don't appear in that verse in ANY known ancient ms. of Revelation.(I could go on all day with this.)

 

Well, got to take them one at a time.
Revelation 16:5, "And I heard the angel of the waters say, Thou art righteous, O Lord, which art, and wast, and shalt be, because thou hast judged thus." I so noted in my KJV that it should read "the Holy One." You simply point out the reading is wrong without saying what it should be.
Jude 1:25, "To the only wise God our Saviour, be glory and majesty, dominion and power, both now and ever. Amen." Which is 78.4% of the texts not having "through our Lord Jesus Christ Christ" the 21.6% of text where God is Savior "through our Lord Jesus Christ." That is so wrong, Jesus Christ is God, Isaiah 43:11.

 

So, it's a goof in the KJV.
Sir, while I recognize your attempts to correct me, you can't tell me how I should post. I shall post according to the view God has given me.

But WHOM did Yahweh authorize to do the saving ? JESUS, of course ! To be saved, one must come to JESUS. Only then can one come to The Father. So it is NOT wrong. YOU are.

 

Do YOU have any perfect translation to point to ?