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Featured The KJV and The Deity of Jesus Christ

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by SavedByGrace, Feb 4, 2021.

  1. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    Here are a couple of examples where on the all important Doctrine of the Deity of The Lord Jesus Christ, where the King James Version has wrongly translated the Greek into English.

    Titus 2:13

    “Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God, and our Saviour Jesus Christ” (1611, edition)

    προσδεχόμενοι τὴν μακαρίαν ἐλπίδα καὶ ἐπιφάνειαν τῆς δόξης τοῦ μεγάλου Θεοῦ καὶ Σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ

    The KJV makes this to refer to two Persons, “the Great God”, as in God the Father; and “our Saviour Jesus Christ”. But this is not how the Greek construction has it. Note the unwarranted use of the comma after “God”, to show that two Persons are meant! In the Original Greek, there are no punctuations used.

    On Titus 2:13, the words of the Greek scholar, Dr George Winer, will suffice on how we should understand the words of the Apostle Paul;

    “In the above remarks it was not my intention to deny that, in point of grammar, Σωτηρoς ²μωv (our Saviour) may be regarded as a second predicate, jointly dependent on the article τoυ (the); but the dogmatic conviction derived from Paul's writings that this apostle cannot have called Christ the great God induced me to show that there is no grammatical obstacle to our taking the clause και Σωτ...Χριστoυ (from, 'and to Christ') by itself as referring to a second subject"

    (A Treatise on the Grammar of New Testament Greek, p.162. 1877 edition. - words in brackets are mine)

    I have chosen Dr Winer’s remarks on purpose, because though was a great Greek grammarian, his “theology” was anti Trinitarian, and being a Unitarian, did not accept the Deity of the Lord Jesus Christ. In this note on this verse, it is clear that Dr Winer admits that in accordance with the Greek grammar, there is no doubt that Paul here calls Jesus Christ, both “the Great God and Saviour”. However, as admitted by Dr Winer, it was his “theology” that prevented him in accepting the fact, that Paul could and does call Jesus Christ, “the Great God”.

    It is evident, that because of the importance of this verse in direct testimony to the Deity of the Lord Jesus Christ, some, for purely theological reasons, translate the Greek to suit them. So we have the New Testament by Dr George Noyes, where it reads, “of the great God and of our Saviour Jesus Christ”. Noyes was a Unitarian, so we cannot expect him to admit to the Deity of Jesus Christ! However, the 1985 Kingdom Interlinear Greek translation published by the Jehovah’s Witnesses, is very interesting. The English in the right-hand column, (In the narrower right-hand column of the pages will be found the 20th-century language New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures, p. 5) reads: "of our God and [the] Saviour Jesus Christ". [the] shows that it is not part of the text, but has been added to make “God” and “Saviour Jesus Christ”, as two distinct Persons! It is clear that the JW’s here admit to Jesus Christ being called “the Great God and Saviour”. This can also be seen in their other publication, the 1942 version of the Emphatic Diaglott, a Greek-English translation. Under the Greek text, the literal English reads, “of the great God and Savior of us Jesus Anointed”. The English in the right-hand column, reads, “the GLORY of our GREAT GOD and Savior Jesus Christ”. No one can doubt that this verse says that Jesus Christ IS the GREAT GOD, and Savior!

    It is evident from the construction of the sentence in the Greek, that the "first rule" laid down by Granville Sharpe, applies here.

    "When the copulative και (and) connects two nouns of the same case, if the article Ï (the) or any of its cases precedes the first of the said nouns or participles, and is not repeated before the second noun or participle, the latter always relates to the same person that is expressed or described by the first noun or participle; i.e, it denotes a further description of the first-named person"

    ( Granville Sharp; Remarks on the Uses of the Definitive Article in the Greek Text of the New Testament, Containing many proofs of the Divinity of Christ, page 8)

    This rules soundness can be seen in a couple of examples. In Ephesians 5:5, Paul writes, “τη βασιλεια του χριστου και θεου”, where we have the use of the one article “του”, and the copulative “και”. The natural way to understand this is, “the Kingdom of Christ and God”, as being of only the one Person. In 2 Thessalonians 1:12, Paul writes, “την χαριν του θεου ημων και κυριου ιησου χριστου”, literally, “the grace of our God and Lord Jesus Christ”. Again, the use of the one article “του”, and the copulative “και”, show that only one Person is meant!

    Instead of writing “τοῦ μεγάλου τοῦ Θεοῦ ἡμῶν καὶ Σωτῆρος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ”; had Paul written, “τοῦ μεγάλου τοῦ Κυριoυ ἡμῶν καὶ Σωτῆρος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ”. There would be no problem in anyone translating this into English as, “our Great Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ”!

    This takes us the next example of the error in the translation of the KJV

    2 Peter 1:1

    “Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ, to them that have obtained like precious faith with us, through the righteousness of God, and our Saviour Jesus Christ” (1611)

    Συμεὼν Πέτρος δοῦλος καὶ ἀπόστολος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ τοῖς ἰσότιμον ἡμῖν λαχοῦσιν πίστιν ἐν δικαιοσύνῃ τοῦ Θεοῦ ἡμῶν καὶ Σωτῆρος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ

    Like Titus 2:13, the KJV has translated this to mean two Persons, “of God”, the Father, and “our Saviour Jesus Christ”. Note the unwarranted use of the comma after “God”, to show that two Persons are meant! Which is not what the Greek grammar says. The same “rule” established by Granville Sharp, applies here.

    In 2 Peter 2:20, and 3:18, the Greek has, “του κυρίου ἡμῶν καὶ σωτῆρος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ”. The KJV translates both as, “of the Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ” (1611), and “of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ”. The Greek in 1:1 is, “τοῦ Θεοῦ ἡμῶν καὶ Σωτῆρος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ”, (1611) where the only difference is, in 1:1, we have “τοῦ Θεοῦ”, and in the other two places, “του κυρίου”. If in the latter two the Greek refers to only the one Person, then why in 1:1, where the Greek construction and wording is the same, it means two Persons?

    Again, even the JW’s Emphatic Diaglott, gets it right in the reading of the English in the right-hand column, which reads, “by the Righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ”

    Just two important texts on the Deity of the Lord Jesus Christ, that the KJV has got wrong. This shows that those who hold to the veiw, that this version is “Inspired”, and “perfect”, is one that is based, not on facts, but personal sentiment!
     
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  2. Hark

    Hark Well-Known Member

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    The KJV was not implying God the Father when the appearing of our great God is the Lord Jesus Christ. God the Father is still in Heaven. It is the appearing of Jesus Christ as our Great God that men will see at that moment.

    People get caught up on punctuations when they should be relying on Jesus Christ to give them wisdom thru the Holy Spirit in them in teaching His words to us.

    1 John 2:27 But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it hath taught you, ye shall abide in him. KJV

    The apostle John did not point to himself or any one else to understand His words when we have the Spirit of Christ in us to teach us. The head of every believer is Christ, the Word of God of Whom we have to do & rely on; James 1:5 Hebrews 4:12-16
     
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  3. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    Tell me how else would you understand the KJV? It is very clear from the way they have translated it, that they are well wrong!
     
  4. Hark

    Hark Well-Known Member

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    How can God the Father appear? It is obvious to me that the Great God is referring to the Lord Jesus Christ as to Whom that is appearing. Just because somebody says it was referring to God the Father & that was what the KJV translators meant is an assumption at best.

    Take time out to pray, because I do see that verse as testifying of the Son since He is the only One appearing in that event.
     
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  5. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    I am not saying that God the Father is Coming back! I am saying that the KJV shows that two Persons are meant, but the Greek says ONE!
     
  6. Hark

    Hark Well-Known Member

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    The KJV is saying One not Two. You focus on the punctuation & other sources to make your case but I focus on His words as to Who is appearing as in the Great God & Our Saviour, being the Lord Jesus Christ. The verse did not separate the Great God from this appearing. The appearing encloses the address of this Great God with the Lord Jesus Christ as Who is appearing.
     
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  7. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    The Kjv got it wrong here!
     
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  8. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    No, they clearly intended to have 2 Persons referred to here!
     
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  9. Hark

    Hark Well-Known Member

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    Read it again as I include the next verse that may help inform you Who is our hope that will be appearing.

    Titus 2:13 Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ; 14 Who gave himself for us, that he might redeem us from all iniquity, and purify unto himself a peculiar people, zealous of good works.
     
  10. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    I also found that the original 1611 edition has "God,", whereas the editions after, "God". So there is a partial correction, though still two Persons!
     
  11. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    you are arguing for the sake of it, to protect your KJV! Do you know any Greek?
     
  12. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    When the Greek text and the Kjv part company, who is the supreme authority then?
     
  13. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    indeed. wish people would honor the Word as the Word, and not because of a translation!
     
  14. Hark

    Hark Well-Known Member

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    I am referring to scripture in the KJV as it is plainly written. This thread is about arguing against the KJV as if it made a mistake with the punctuation & thereby changing the message in the verse & I say you are straining that gnat by another teacher because I am reading it as the sole hope & appearing of that great God is none other than Jesus Christ Our Saviour.

    I am reading it correctly whereas you imply as if punctuations changes the meaning of that message but I do not see how when that hope & appearing of our Great God is Jesus because that is the One that will appear to be seen..
     
  15. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    Sorry can't help you anymore
     
  16. Hark

    Hark Well-Known Member

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    It is on God to cause the increase. Thank you for sharing but I agree to disagree.
     
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  17. percho

    percho Well-Known Member
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    'Hear, O Israel, Jehovah our God, one Jehovah; Deut 6:4

    At the time spoken is that one Jehovah, Spirit or something? ----- I say Spirit.

    How is salvation, being saved from death and corruption of the flesh, going to be wrought by Spirit The God, one Jehovah?

    Exodus 3:14 NIV God said to Moses, “I AM WHO I AM.[fn] This is what you are to say to the Israelites: ‘I AM has sent me to you.’ ”

    [fn] --- Literally - I will be what I will be ----- I shall become, who, I am becoming, tell them I shall become, sent me unto you

    How did Spirit The God become The Word, made flesh?

    Did it have anything to do with, woman, taken out of man, created, in the image of and after the likeness of, his creator?

    Was that the plan of, Spirit the God, the Father of Jesus the Anointed, the Son of the Living God, before the foundation of the world?

    Another thought, in a question. Was it the plan before the foundation of the world for the Son of God to be manifested in the world through a virgin, woman?
     
  18. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    The Holy Spirit is a distinct Person to the Lord Jesus Christ, they cannot be the same Person!

    Literally - I will be what I will be ----- I shall become, who, I am becoming, tell them I shall become, sent me unto you

    Not so, the best translation is that of the KJV and others like, "I AM THAT I AM". The Jews themselves render it:

    and God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM…I AM hath sent me unto you”

    (Dr A Benisch; Jewish School and Family Bible, Vol.II)

    “And God said unto Moses: ‘I AM THAT I AM’… I AM hath sent me unto you.’.’”

    (The Holy Scriptures According to the Masoretic Text, A New Translation. The Jewish Publication Society of America. 5677-1917)

    “And God said unto Moses: ‘I am that I am’… I am hath sent me unto you.’

    (Hebrew-English Tanakh, The Jewish Bible, Varda Books. Jewish Publication)

    “And God said unto Moses: 'I AM THAT I …I AM hath sent me unto you.'”

    (A Hebrew - English Bible According to the Masoretic Text and the JPS 1917 Edition. Mechon Mamre. Jewish Publication)

    “And G-d said unto Moses: 'I AM THAT I …I AM hath sent me unto you.'”

    (Jewish Virtual Library, The Book of Shemot (Exodus): Chapter 3; Shemot (Exodus): Chapter 3)

    “And God said to [Moses, I] AM THAT I AM… I AM has sent me to you”

    (Martin Abegg Jr., Peter Flint and Eugene Ulrich. The Dead Sea Scrolls Bible)

    “And God spoke to Moses, saying, I am THE BEING… THE BEING has sent me to you”

    (Lancelot Brenton, The Septuagint in Greek and English)

    “God said to Moses, “I AM WHO AM…HE WHO IS has sent me to you.’”

    (Albert Pietersma and Benjamin G. Wright, Editors; A New English Translation of the Septuagint)

    “And God said to Moyses, “I am The One Who Is…The One Who Is has sent me to you”

    (Latin Vulgate of Jerome)
     
  19. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    Surprisingly, the 1611 edition of the KJV has a comma after God at 2 Peter 1:1 [God, and our Saviour Jesus Christ], and that comma seems to have remained in most KJV editions printed up to the 1769 Oxford edition. The 1743 Cambridge and 1760 Cambridge editions had actually removed it before the 1769. Even the first KJV edition printed in America in 1782 and KJV editions printed at Oxford in 1788 and in 1795 still have a comma after God at 2 Peter 1:1.

    How does this comma in most KJV editions up to the 1769 Oxford affect the understanding and interpretation of this verse?

    Concerning this verse in his 1633 commentary on 2 Peter, Thomas Adams observed: “Some read these words by disjoining them; of God, and of our Saviour,“ which would seem to refer to the rendering in the 1611.
     
  20. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    Several pre-1611 English Bibles and many post-1611 English Bibles clearly, precisely, and accurately identify Jesus Christ as "our God and Saviour" at 2 Peter 1:1.

    William Tyndale in 1534, Miles Coverdale in 1535, and John Rogers in 1537 translated the last part of this verse as "righteousness that cometh of our God and Saviour Jesus Christ." In his 1538 Latin-English New Testament, Miles Coverdale rendered it “righteousness of our God and Saviour Jesus Christ.” The 1539 Great Bible, 1557 Whittingham's New Testament, 1560 Geneva Bible, 1568 Bishops' Bible, 1576 Tomson’s New Testament, 1657 Haak’s English translation of the Dutch Bible, 1755 Wesley's New Testament, 1842 Baptist or Bernard's, 1862 Young’s Literal Translation, 1866 American Bible Union Version, 1982 NKJV, 1994 Majority Text Interlinear, and other English translations render it "righteousness of our God and Saviour [or Savior] Jesus Christ."

    At 2 Peter 1:1, the 2005 Cambridge edition of the KJV has this note taken from the standard 1762 Cambridge edition: “Gr. of our God and Saviour.” KJV editions printed at Oxford in 1810, 1821, 1835, 1857, 1865, 1868, and 1885, and at Cambridge in 1769, 1844, 1872, and 1887 also have this same note indicating the accurate translation and meaning of the Greek. An earlier KJV edition printed in London in 1711 had the same note and a cross reference to Titus 2:13.

    Concerning 2 Peter 1:1 in the Westminster Annotations printed in 1645, this note was also given: “Gr. Of our God and Saviour Jesus Christ.” Thus, the Bible scholars at the Westminster Assembly agreed with the pre-1611 English Bible translators and the editors of some standard KJV editions.
     
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