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The KJV is a variety of the TR?

Maestroh

New Member
Good points

C4K said:
I saw this quote in another thread and to be quite honest I was bothered by it. It claims that the KJV is not just a translation of the TR, but an actual variety of it. Its sounds like that would attempt to equate it with Erasmus, Stephanus, et al.





There are many who say they are not KJVO, but TRO. Does this concept not give ground for one to say he is TRO, perhaps because that is more acceptable, while in essence he truly is KJVO, since it is a "variety of the TR?"

Would this at least partly explain why so many TRO men are against the NKJV?

Please, lets stick to the topic. There is no room to praise or condemn the CT or translations from that here. Lets limit our discussion to the topic at hand, in the same manner as Manny Rodriguez and 4His_glory have done in the RVG thread.


The KJVOs like Edward Hills for ONE REASON: he is an actual textual critic, and he shares their views for the most part. He admitted in "Believing Bible Study" to three errors in the KJV, but this is generally not even discussed by the modern KJVO movement.

Fact is that the KJV was an ECLECTIC text based on prior TRs. Scrivener notes that the KJV translators made different choices because there were - are you ready for this - 252 variant readings within the TR itself!!

They chose Beza on some, Stephanus on some, Erasmus on some.

In short - they engaged in textual criticism and ecelecticism just like the KJVOs accuse modern translations of doing.

Now that said - I concur with your original point. This is little more than a scholarly way of being 'KJVO' without the idiocy attached to the label.

Keep in mind, however, that there are really only two well-known TR advocates, Hills and his late disciple, Theodore Letis. Yet the latter is NOT BY A LONG SHOT a KJVO. For example, Letis admits that the last 12 verses of Mark are secondary but holds them to be canonical. He also denies the authenticity of I John 5:7, so he would qualify as a TR guy.

Hills is a TR guy but he still opts for virtually every reading in the KJV. And keep in mind - he does not do this because of his training in TC but because of his theological a priori.
 

robycop3

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Maestroh, it appears that the AV men used all the materials they had available to them, including existing translations and about every TR edition they could get their hands upon, although they followed Archbishop Bancroft's instructions to stick to the Bishop's Bible closely as possible. the KJVOs just don't wanna admit the AV translators used an eclectic mix of translations, TR editions, & manuscripts to make the KJV.
 

Salamander

New Member
C4K said:
I saw this quote in another thread and to be quite honest I was bothered by it. It claims that the KJV is not just a translation of the TR, but an actual variety of it. Its sounds like that would attempt to equate it with Erasmus, Stephanus, et al.





There are many who say they are not KJVO, but TRO. Does this concept not give ground for one to say he is TRO, perhaps because that is more acceptable, while in essence he truly is KJVO, since it is a "variety of the TR?"

Would this at least partly explain why so many TRO men are against the NKJV?

Please, lets stick to the topic. There is no room to praise or condemn the CT or translations from that here. Lets limit our discussion to the topic at hand, in the same manner as Manny Rodriguez and 4His_glory have done in the RVG thread.
"Inquiring minds have to know":laugh:
 

Salamander

New Member
robycop3 said:
Maestroh, it appears that the AV men used all the materials they had available to them, including existing translations and about every TR edition they could get their hands upon, although they followed Archbishop Bancroft's instructions to stick to the Bishop's Bible closely as possible. the KJVOs just don't wanna admit the AV translators used an eclectic mix of translations, TR editions, & manuscripts to make the KJV.
Thus a specific variety of the "TR" was used to give us the word of God.
 

Maestroh

New Member
So where was the Word of God BEFORE This?

Salamander said:
Thus a specific variety of the "TR" was used to give us the word of God.


"Out there" somewhere? "Among" the manuscripts?

It seems to me that such a view hardly differentiates that of those who claim the KJV is the preserved text from those who do not hold to any form of preservation.
 

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
In an article entitled "What is that Book You Hold in Your Hand" that written by Shelton Smith, editor of The Sword of the Lord, and that is posted at the swordofthelord.com web site, he makes a claim that is similar to the misleading or inaccurate claim made by Hills.

Shelton Smith wrote: "Now, God has preserved His inspired Word for us. It is preserved in the Hebrew Masoretic text and in the Greek Textus Receptus text. It is also preserved for us in English in the King James Bible.

What He at first inspired, the Lord God has now preserved. Therefore, when I hold the King James Bible in my hand, I hold the inspired text."
[bold added by this poster]
 
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