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The "only" version?

Discussion in 'Other Christian Denominations' started by Salty, Oct 13, 2018.

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  1. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    Not nearly as much as the KJV. The verses with the words you quoted aren't preached about too often.
     
  2. Squire Robertsson

    Squire Robertsson Administrator
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    Six Hour Warning
    This thread will be closed sometime time after 6 PM Pacific.
     
  3. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    the person who wants to have a Kjv feel but updated words should just use the Nkjv!
     
  4. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    That wasn't your criteria. You moved the goal posts.

    I see. So, are you saying it is better to not preach the whole council of God then to preach on a verse with a word that is not universally understood by the hearers? It almost sounds like you are taking the KJVO position that preaching from a modern version is the same as not preaching the whole bible!
     
  5. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    People who discuss the bible version issue have a pretty good understanding of what "Modern Version" means. It is a bible translated sometime after the mid 1850s. Early English translations would be from Tyndale to the ERV.

    Modern English translations would be from the ERV through the present.
     
  6. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    I have a different take. I'd say modern would be no more than 30 years ago. So from 1989 to the present would be considered modern or contemporary. A generation would be 30 years max, so that seems about right.
     
  7. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    Again, common sense has to rule here. Preaching from the KJV today would require much more time to explain antiquated expressions. That's the groundwork before application and explanation of the text for the modern person in the pew. Preaching from the KJV means the preacher and the congregation have to jump through more hoops before getting down to brass tacks.
    Why do you do that? You twist seemingly every statement of others just like DHK did. You major on minors much of the time. There is no conceivable way that he meant to avoid preaching the whole counsel of the Word of God.

    Again, basing your case on minutiea is silly. And you know that a false premise yields a false conclusion.
     
    #147 Rippon, Oct 20, 2018
    Last edited: Oct 20, 2018
  8. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    Then you don't understand the term as used in textual criticism.
     
  9. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    And nobody has claimed otherwise.

    Why do I respond to RobyCop3? Because I want to. Is that okay with you? I was not aware I needed your permission to respond to Roby's comments.
     
  10. Salty

    Salty 20,000 Posts Club
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    It would be based on the individual concept of modern. For some people a "Modern version" would be any version printed after 1620
     
  11. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    The term "Modern Version" is generally applied to English bibles based on the Alexandrian textform which first came into prominence around the middle of the 19th century. Those would include Lachmann and his Alexandrian based text of 1831, with later editions in 1842 and 1850. Scholz published a similar Alexandrian based text in 1845. This trend culminated, of course, in the Greek text as published by Westcott and Hort in 1882.

    So, for the purposes of this type of discussion, when you hear "Modern Version" you can understand the translation is based on the above or on a text descended from one of the above. :)
     
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  12. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    You know that was not my question. It's your style to twist things just like DHK was in the habit of doing.

    You need to respond honestly --not turn things needlessly around.
     
  13. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    To the average Joe or Jill the words modern and contemporary are synonyms -- as any dictionary would demonstrate.

    Calling a version of Scripture published 400 years ago would certainly not qualify as modern. And even translations made up to 168 years ago would not be considered modern to the average person on the street. Modern means in the present time period -- this generation. That is, within the last 30 years. Even then, those versions produced more than a quarter of a century ago would be regarded as dated.
     
  14. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    Speaking of moving the goal posts...

    This started with my saying the KJV has many more words whose intended meaning in the KJV is not understood my many modern English users. Sure, every valid English version has a word here & there some people don't understand, but the KJV has more such words. No getting around that fact.
     
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  15. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    Yes, you just did it again!

    Except that is NOT what you said!
    No mention of "more words." Just a complaint because a preacher explained a word most people may not have understood.

    You made a poor word choice and got called on it. Just own it and move on.
     
  16. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    So math is not your strong suit either? Let's see: Mid 1800s to early 2000s. 168 years. 168 does NOT equal 400 years. Please. Tell me you don't balance your own checkbook! LOL!
     
  17. Squire Robertsson

    Squire Robertsson Administrator
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    This thread is closed.
     
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