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The real reason I am KJVO

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by stilllearning, Dec 25, 2008.

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  1. annsni

    annsni Well-Known Member
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    You are pointing out that the KJV uses the same terms and therefore there is no contradictions. They were right to use different terms in the verses.

    I pointed out that the original language uses the same words. If the MVs are incorrect for using the same words and therefore creating what you are calling a "contradiction', then you are saying that God wrote a contradiction Himself. There's no denying that Askjo.
     
    #221 annsni, Dec 27, 2008
  2. annsni

    annsni Well-Known Member
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    I certainly am feeling kind of like that. But I have 4 kids. I'm patient. :laugh:
     
    #222 annsni, Dec 27, 2008
  3. ray Marshall

    ray Marshall New Member

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    This keeps haunting me through out all this thread. This Dude keep on blabbling.
    So here goes:
    Answer not a fool according to his folly, lest thou also be like unto him.
    Answer a fool according to his folly,lest he be wise in his own conceit.
     
    #223 ray Marshall, Dec 27, 2008
  4. franklinmonroe

    franklinmonroe Active Member

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    The difference is between kia (most often "and" in English) and h (the Greek letter Heta pronounced like the long A in Able, and is generally translated "or"). Not to be confused in this position with ho (the femine definite article, "the")
     
    #224 franklinmonroe, Dec 27, 2008
    Last edited by a moderator: Dec 27, 2008
  5. annsni

    annsni Well-Known Member
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    Here's the Greek from that link:

    ΚΑΤΑ ΙΩΑΝΝΗΝ 8:14 Greek NT: Textus Receptus (1550)
    απεκριθη ιησους και ειπεν αυτοις καν εγω μαρτυρω περι εμαυτου αληθης εστιν η μαρτυρια μου οτι οιδα ποθεν ηλθον και που υπαγω υμεις δε ουκ οιδατε ποθεν ερχομαι και που υπαγω

    ΚΑΤΑ ΙΩΑΝΝΗΝ 8:14 Greek NT: Westcott/Hort
    απεκριθη ιησους και ειπεν αυτοις καν εγω μαρτυρω περι εμαυτου αληθης εστιν η μαρτυρια μου οτι οιδα ποθεν ηλθον και που υπαγω υμεις δε ουκ οιδατε ποθεν ερχομαι η που υπαγω

    Let's see if that shows up. This way someone can tell me the difference between the two. :)
     
    #225 annsni, Dec 27, 2008
  6. franklinmonroe

    franklinmonroe Active Member

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    I already did. The TR has "and" and the W/H has "or". It only affects the end of the verse where a TR text would read "whence I come, and whither I go" as apposed to "whence I come, or whither I go".
     
    #226 franklinmonroe, Dec 27, 2008
  7. annsni

    annsni Well-Known Member
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    OK great. I wanted to be sure that my explanation in the other post made sense because after I read it, it looked dumb. LOL

    So not much difference between the two. And certainly not dealing with the issue at hand. Thanks so much!!
     
    #227 annsni, Dec 27, 2008
  8. stilllearning

    stilllearning Active Member

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    Hi preachinjesus

    You said.........

    Your right, about God changing people, and using the Bible to do it.

    And your right, about the Bible being the tool that the Lord uses.

    But I am right, when I point out, that messing with the Bible, makes it a less efficient tool for the Lord to use.
     
    #228 stilllearning, Dec 27, 2008
  9. annsni

    annsni Well-Known Member
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    Ummm - God used a donkey, didn't He? I've worked with donkeys - if God can use a donkey, He can certainly be efficient with anything He feels like. No need to worry about efficiency with Him.

    Besides, we've seen so far nothing at all wrong/in error/corrupt in the MVs. This has been pretty easy so far! :thumbs:
     
    #229 annsni, Dec 27, 2008
  10. franklinmonroe

    franklinmonroe Active Member

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    It is completely unnecessary to go to the supporting Greek. The KJV itself has the same issue using the English word "witness" --
    If I bear witness of myself, my witness is not true. (John 5:31, KJV)

    I am one that bear witness of myself, and the Father that sent me beareth witness of me. (John 8:18, KJV)​
    That His "witness is true" is implied (unless it is known to be a false statement, which would be a whole new problem).

    According to the KJV, Jesus first says that if He bore "witness" of Himself it would not be true, but then He said that He actually does bear "witness" of Himself. So using only the KJV text, did Jesus say something untrue the first time, or the second time?
     
    #230 franklinmonroe, Dec 27, 2008
    Last edited by a moderator: Dec 27, 2008
  11. annsni

    annsni Well-Known Member
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    Good call. Good call. :thumbs:
     
    #231 annsni, Dec 27, 2008
  12. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    Hope you all enjoyed the Christmas present of this thread being allowed to run FAR too long.
     
    #232 NaasPreacher (C4K), Dec 28, 2008
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