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Those Objecting to God Imputing Righteousness

Discussion in 'Other Discussions' started by KenH, Dec 14, 2021.

  1. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    God imputes the righteousness of the Lord Jesus right when we believe!
     
  2. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    We are justified the moment we first believed!
     
  3. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Regurgitated fiction.
     
  4. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Regurgitated fiction.
     
  5. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Verse after verse says where we are made righteous. That would be "in Christ, in Jesus, in Him," etc.

    Rom 8:1 There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.

    Rom 6:23
    For the wages of sin is death, but the gracious gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord.

    2Co 5:17
    Therefore if anyone is in Christ, this person is a new creation; the old things passed away; behold, new things have come.

    When a person is regenerated (made alive together with Christ) they have therefore undergone the washing of regeneration.

    When are we forgiven, justified, made righteous? After God credits our faith as righteousness and places us into Christ where we undergo the washing of regeneration, then having been born anew, have become the righteousness of God. Imputation is no where to be found! It is a lock...
     
  6. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    2 Corinthians 5:21(NASB)
    He made Him who knew no sin to be a sin offering in our behalf, so that we might become the righteousness of God in Him.
    Imputation is never found in scripture.
     
  7. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Romans is fiction?
     
  8. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Galatians is fiction?
     
  9. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Where did this false doctrine of "declared" rather than made righteous come from" The YLT! While the ESV, NIV, NLT have it a very few or at no time, and ditto for the KJV family of translations, YLT has the mistranslation about 30 times!! The NET also has it about 9 times. The Greek word (G1344) is usually translated as justified. For example, the NET translates "G1344" 9 times as "declared righteous" but 17 times the same word is translated "Justified." Thus the mistranslation is arbitrarily introduced into the text, when those same verses have "justified" in the vast majority of versions.

    So how do you explain the devotion to obvious falsehood by Calvinist after Calvinist?
     
  10. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Note this fount of disinformation now has the unmitigated gall to put heresy into my mouth. Why this disinformation poster is allowed to spew falsehood over thread after thread is mind boggling.
     
  11. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Note this fount of disinformation now has the unmitigated gall to put heresy into my mouth. Why this disinformation poster is allowed to spew falsehood over thread after thread is mind boggling.
     
  12. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    You deny Imputation by the Father, so that would be denying Pauline Justification!
     
  13. KenH

    KenH Well-Known Member

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    • Agree Agree x 1
  14. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Note imputation is false doctrine and those advocating it are false teachers. They make generalized statements (Pauline Justification) which is by way of credited faith, washing of regeneration, and circumcision of Christ. Pay no attention to their nonsense.
     
  15. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Rom 4:6
    just as David also speaks of the blessing of the person to whom God credits righteousness apart from works:
    “BLESSED ARE THOSE WHOSE LAWLESS DEEDS HAVE BEEN FORGIVEN, AND WHOSE SINS HAVE BEEN COVERED.
    BLESSED IS THE MAN WHOSE SIN THE LORD WILL NOT TAKE INTO ACCOUNT.”

    Does this passage say God credits righteousness to an individual? Yes. Does the passage say God declares they are "made righteous? Nope.

    The "declared righteous" nonsense is based on mistranslation of a word meaning "Justified." Full Stop
     
  16. KenH

    KenH Well-Known Member

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    Romans 4:6 Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works (emphasis mine)
     
    • Agree Agree x 1
  17. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Note the emphasis on the arcane translation of logizomai but lacking understanding that the verse is referring to a person's faith being credited as righteousness to him or her.

    Does this passage say God credits righteousness to an individual? Yes. Does the passage say God declares they are "made righteous? Nope.

    The "declared righteous" nonsense is based on mistranslation of a word meaning "Justified." Full Stop
     
  18. KenH

    KenH Well-Known Member

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    Please note that in the quote posted above that the false teaching that man's work of believing is the basis of his being made righteous. Man cannot lift even his little finger to contribute in any way to his salvation. A dead man cannot believe, cannot repent, etc. And the Bible clearly teaches that in an unregenerated state that man will not seek God nor believe the gospel nor place his trust in the finished work of Christ and His righteousness alone(Romans 3:9-20, Ephesians 2:1,5).

    Romans 4:6 Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works (emphasis mine)
     
  19. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Once again false doctrine is being asserted by false teaching. The claim faith is works is not only false as Romans 4:16 teaches, but goes on to claim the people of Matthew 23:13 were entering the kingdom but we not "seeking God." Hogwash.

    No verse or passage says or suggests that the lost cannot seek God, but verse after verse says the lost do seek God some of the time, sometimes through faith and sometimes through works.
     
  20. KenH

    KenH Well-Known Member

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    @Van

    Romans 3:11 There is none who understands; There is none who seeks after God. (emphasis mine)
     
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