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What's wrong with the NKJV?

Discussion in '2003 Archive' started by neal4christ, Jan 21, 2003.

  1. The Harvest

    The Harvest New Member

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    Prior to 1611 the English speaking people did have "the word of God" but they didn’t yet have "God’s infallible and preserved word to the English speaking people." Actually they had more of the word of God than people who use one of the modern translations today. How pitiful. Modern scholarship has defrauded believers out of the pure word of God and given them translations inferior to those used by Christians over 400 years ago!
     
  2. Johnv

    Johnv New Member

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    The KJB is the ONLY Book in existance that satisfyies the hundreds of requirements for the word of God. here are a few of these hundreds:

    -Must be pure (Ps 12:6)
    -Must be preserved (Ps 12:6-7)
    -Must be purified seven times (Ps 12:6-7)
    -Must be attacked by lost and liberal men (2 Cor 2:17)


    Please explain, then, why the perfect KJV makes references to unicorns.

    And, if the KJV is the only pure tranlsation, then I assume that you would want all non-Elglish translations done away with.

    [ January 23, 2003, 06:49 PM: Message edited by: Johnv ]
     
  3. Scott J

    Scott J Active Member
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    OK. Prove it. Grab the original mss you have hidden in your closet and show us that the KJV does not depart from them... including the italicized words.
    OK. Show your proof that the words of the KJV were preserved from the writing of Psalms 12 until now... I thought the KJV was translated in the early 17th century... silly me.
    Wait... you just said that it must be preserved. How can something be perfectly preserved yet require purification?

    BTW, Nestle-Aland has been purified 27 times...
    Oh yeah. That's a good one. So the fact the KJVOnlyism originated with the attacks of an SDA name Wilkerson on the MV's validates them, right?
    etc...

    No. There is no such thing as a perfect word for word Bible in this modern age. That would require that God Himself re-inspire His Word. How dare you talk about such a Bible without proving it exists. I am not interested in your opinions. Just your proof.
     
  4. The Harvest

    The Harvest New Member

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    U'NICORN, n. [L. unicornis; unus, one, and cornu, horn.]

    1. an animal with one horn; the monoceros. this name is often applied to the rhinoceros.

    Websters 1828

    Any other brainbusters?
     
  5. BrianT

    BrianT New Member

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    No, that cannot be! God's word *is* pure, perfect and infallible! They cannot "have the word of God" and "not have God's infallible and preserved word" at the same time, because the two are the very same thing! Only the KJV is the word of God. They did not have it, therefore they could not have "the word of God"! They only had a "bible" that contained lies in Psalm 12:6-7 and other places. Do you defend lies?!? Do you call lies "the word of God"?!?
     
  6. The Harvest

    The Harvest New Member

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    I would be careful with that one chief. You are calling God a liar. You said you believe Ps 12:6-7. So that means that you believe God would perserve His word. Yet you just said God didn't perserve His word. You don't even know what you believe.
     
  7. BrianT

    BrianT New Member

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    U'NICORN, n. [L. unicornis; unus, one, and cornu, horn.]

    1. an animal with one horn; the monoceros. this name is often applied to the rhinoceros.

    Websters 1828
    </font>[/QUOTE]Sorry, but Webster's dictionary is not the final authority. My KJV says "unicorn" and I believe it! Are you not a Bible-believer? Don't you question the word of God by saying it was a rhinoceros! If the KJV translators wanted to put rhinocerous, they could have put it. Don't cast doubt on the word of God! Sounds like "yea hath God said" to me!

    [ January 23, 2003, 06:58 PM: Message edited by: BrianT ]
     
  8. The Harvest

    The Harvest New Member

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    Even if that is true, why does it matter?

    Does it matter to you that charismatics, SDAs, and catholics use Bibles that were translated from the same greek and hebrew texts that your "Bibles" were translated from?
     
  9. Johnv

    Johnv New Member

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    1611 AV: unto us which are saved

    Jerry Falwell Version: to us who are being saved. (1 Cor 1:18)

    The phrase "being" is a form of "to be", for example: "I, being an American". It means exactly the same thing in both these versions.
     
  10. Scott J

    Scott J Active Member
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    It doesn't although all of the preservation texts were written in those languages and if perfect preservation applies to any words it must be those inspired by God.

    There is a difference between God's words and His Word. God's words were the inspired originals. God's Word is the message of those originals which is communicated by the faithful translations to include the KJV.

    I am perfectly aware that is what you all say so by all means cite the scripture that says that only the KJV is the Word of God in English. Those posted by PW disprove themselves. If you cannot cite those scriptures then the above statement is false.

    No. They simply accept the promises of scripture and the facts of textual transmission at the same time without making up fairy tales about 7 purifications and what not.
     
  11. Scott J

    Scott J Active Member
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    Even if that is true, why does it matter?</font>[/QUOTE] Because PW said that a qualifier to be the perfect Word of God was to be attacked by the lost and liberals.

    Actually, my primary Bible is the KJV.

    But to answer your question, no, it doesn't bother me.... nor does it bother me that the Mormons use the KJV... nor does it bother me that the KJV translators persecuted the Baptists of their day... nor does it bother me that the Baptists of the early 17th century clung to the Geneva Bible until the Anglicans outlawed it... nor does it bother me that the Greek text used for the KJV originated with a Catholic that never renounced his attachment to the church and never made a profession of faith that we would acknowledge as salvation... nor does it bother me that the last 7 verses of the TR come directly from the Latin Vulgate of the RCC...
     
  12. Pastor Larry

    Pastor Larry <b>Moderator</b>
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    No it doesn't. You are not clear on what Psalm 12:6-7 teaches. It teaches the preservation of the godly man for, according to the psalm, that is what is in danger of perishing. God's words are appealed to as proof that the godly man will not perish but will rather be preserved.
     
  13. neal4christ

    neal4christ New Member

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    Good, I am glad you realize this. Now maybe you will stop spouting off all of the KJVO nonsense, since it is based on feelings and no facts.

    Good again! You are coming a long way, I guess there is hope for you. I guess you would understand this quote seeming how much of KJVO is based on lies repeated over and over and over and over and over and over and over and over and.....well, you get the picture.

    Neal
     
  14. The Harvest

    The Harvest New Member

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    Pastor Larry, the King James Bible is talking about perserving the words. The other "versions" ie the NIV say "O LORD, you will keep us safe and protect us..." It is the other "versions" that are not talking about God's words.
     
  15. Steve K.

    Steve K. Guest

    hmmm;
    The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times. Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever.

    The above promise from the King James Bible tells us that God intends to preserve His WORDS forever. Notice how the new versions destroy this promise by making you think the context is God's PEOPLE rather than His WORDS:

    NIV....... you will keep us safe

    NASB... Thou wilt preserve him

    NRSV... You, O Lord, will protect us

    REB...... you are our protector

    LB......... you will forever preserve your own

    NAB...... You, O Lord, will keep us
     
  16. BrianT

    BrianT New Member

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    Amen! Even Bibles before the KJV, like the Geneva with its marginal notes say it's referring to people! Not only is the verse a lie before 1611, so is the interpretation! Lies on top of lies! Thank God 1611 finally came so we could finally have the word of God instead of lies!
     
  17. Ed Edwards

    Ed Edwards <img src=/Ed.gif>

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    Pastor Larry: "The Bible teaches that we have been saved, that we are being saved, and that we will be saved."

    Amen, Brother Pastor Larry -- Preach it!

    "we have been saved" - justification
    "we are being saved" - sanctification
    "we will be saved" - glorification

    Yep, the salvation trinity, just like
    Baptists have always believed.
     
  18. Steve K.

    Steve K. Guest

    That's why GOD gave us the KJV1611 to preserve his perfect word and we would not have to rely on imperfect works.AAAAAAAAAAAAAAmen
     
  19. Johnv

    Johnv New Member

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    You gotta go back the the original Hebrew. If you look at Ps 12:6-7 strictly at the original Hebrew, this is what it literally says:

    Yahweh's commands are pure commands. Monetary silver, earthly furnace smelted, refined sevenfold. Yahweh to guard and protect this age eternal(ly).

    While the KJV authors read this to mean that the words of God will be protected and preserved, others tend to think that God's words are used to protect his people forever.

    One thing is clear to me in the Hebrew, however. This verse has NOTHING to do with the KJV being the preserved word of God.

    [ January 23, 2003, 08:11 PM: Message edited by: Johnv ]
     
  20. BrianT

    BrianT New Member

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    AAAAmen! Finally, after 1611 years, imperfect bibles (can you say "perVersions") and their evil, corrupt lies are cast aside as God finally figures out how to give us a perfect Bible!
     
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