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Where is the word "inspired" in the KJV?

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Logos1560, May 1, 2022.

  1. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    Where is the word "inspired" found in the KJV?

    At 2 Timothy 3:16, the KJV does give five words ["given by inspiration of God"] as its rendering for one Greek adjective that means "God-breathed." That verse does not have the word "inspired."

    Did you know that the word "inspired" is found in a pre-1611 English Bible?

    Tyndale's New Testament, the 1537 Matthew's Bible, the 1539 Great Bible, 1557 Whittingham's New Testament, and the 1568 Bishops' Bible all rendered Mark 12:36 as follows: "for David himself inspired with the Holy Ghost."

    To refer to the inspiring of men or to "inspired men" would be consistent with early English Bible terminology from the very good Bibles in the line or stream of good Bibles promoted by KJV-only advocates. Is this understanding or interpretation of the early English Bible translators an accurate description of the process of God in giving His words to men?

    At John 20:19, the 1560 Geneva Bible and an edition of the KJV printed in 1672 have the following marginal note: “Christ in that he presented himself before his disciples suddenly through his divine power, when the gates were shut, doth fully assure them both of his resurrection, and also of their Apostleship, inspiring them with the holy Ghost, who is the director of the ministry of the Gospel.” The Geneva Bible and a KJV edition printed in 1672 have the following note at 1 Corinthians 14:32: “The doctrine which the prophets bring, which are inspired with God’s Spirit.” At 1 Corinthians 14:2, the same two Bibles have a note that begins as follows: “By that inspiration which he has received of the Spirit.”

    Which words proceeded directly from the mouth of God to the prophets and apostles or were given by inspiration of God to the prophets and apostles? The words which proceeded from the mouth of God or which were given by inspiration of God to the prophets and apostles were the original-language words of Scripture.
     
    #1 Logos1560, May 1, 2022
    Last edited: May 1, 2022
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  2. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    Concerning 2 Timothy 3:16, Lloyd Perry and Robert Culver suggested that the words “is given by” are “an interpolated interpretation--intended to help translate, but joined with ’inspiration,’ really being a rather inept carry-over from the Latin Vulgate.” Perry and Culver added: “The situation is thus: The first clause of verse 16 in Greek is pasa (all) graphe (scripture) theopneustos (God-breathed). The clause requires the supply of ’is’ between ’scripture’ and ’God-breathed’ for translation into English. Hence we should read, ’All scripture (is) God-breathed’” (How to Search the Scriptures, pp. 59-60). The Latin Vulgate as found in Coverdale’s 1538 Latin-English New Testament began 2 Timothy 3:16 as follows: “Omnis scriptura divinitus inspirata,“ and the Latin Vulgate also has “inspirati” in its rendering at 2 Peter 1:21.

    Along with Mark 12:36, 2 Peter 1:21 is another verse where a couple English Bibles use the word "inspired." Stephen Westcott’s modern-spelling edition of the 1388 Wycliffe New Testament has the following rendering of 2 Peter 1:21: “for prophecy was not brought at any time by man’s will, but the holy men of God, inspired with the Holy Ghost, spoke it.“ Miles Coverdale’s rendering of the Latin Vulgate in his 1538 English New Testament at 2 Peter 1:21 is the following: “For the prophecy was never brought by the will of man, but the holy men of God spake as they were inspired by the holy Ghost.”

    Just as the word "inspiration" at 2 Timothy 3:16 came through influence of the Latin Vulgate, the word "inspired" at 2 Peter 1:21 in a couple English Bibles came through influence of the Latin Vulgate. The Latin Vulgate's rendering at 2 Peter 1:21 may also explain why "inspired" was used at Mark 12:36 in several pre-1611 English Bibles of which the KJV is a revision.

    Many Bible scholars and even several KJV-only authors maintain that 2 Timothy 3:16 and 2 Peter 1:21 are the two main verses concerning inspiration of the Scriptures. They are sometimes suggested to be parallel verses.

    While some KJV-only authors may condemn anyone who refers to "inspired" prophets or apostles, they do not seem to demonstrate that there is a huge difference in meaning between Scripture being "God-breathed" (2 Tim. 3:16) and Scriptures being given through holy men of God [the prophets and apostles] moved by the Holy Spirit.

    Perhaps the Latin Vulgate's rendering in 2 Peter 1:21 explains why the pre-1611 English Bibles referred to prophets being inspired with God's Spirit in marginal notes.
     
  3. Marooncat79

    Marooncat79 Well-Known Member
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    Yeah, the KJV is guilty of plagiarism in regards to Tyndales translation.

    sir William would have had millions in todays world
     
  4. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    The Kjv translators has no extra assistance form the Holy Spirit when they made the kjv!
     
  5. Marooncat79

    Marooncat79 Well-Known Member
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    Ok
     
  6. Marooncat79

    Marooncat79 Well-Known Member
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    Isn’t it either 65%?or 85%? Of the NT came from Tyndale?
     
  7. Conan

    Conan Well-Known Member

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    Certainly 85%.
     
  8. Conan

    Conan Well-Known Member

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    Actually it was very smart for them to copy Tyndale. When they copied Bishops, Rheims not so much . But because they were wise enough to copy Tyndale it makes the KJV still an excellent, accurate version even until today. Still one of the very best!
     
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