Originally posted by Scott J:
Actually, you might want to re-read Romans 3 for yourself. The text makes a clear transition in verse 9. There it broadens to include Jew, Gentile, and "we". This text also follows Romans 2:14-15 where Paul expands "the Law" to indict the Gentiles who are convicted by their conscience.
I am not disagree that both Jews and Gentiles are guilty of breaking the law of God and therefore both seen as sinful, but you add to that your assumption that faith is not within man's God given capasity. Every man has the capasity for faith, so no one is with excuse.
Verse 21 transitions from sin due to the law to a righteousness that comes through faith, it mentions faith 8 or 9 times in this small passage--funny it never once speaks about man's inability to possess it. (until he get to chapter 10 and 11 and speaks about Israel being hardened, now there is a group that unable to believe, at least for a time)
I don't assume anything. It isn't necessary as long as Gal 3:22, Rom 5:6-14, Eph 1:3-2:1-3, Eph 4:22, Col 1:13&21, Titus 3:3-5 together with numerous others show that man is corrupted by his sin nature with no desire to "seek God."
Because man has no desire to seek God doesn't mean that when God seeks him through the spreading of the Gospel and the universal calling of the Spirit that he is unable to respond in faith!!! I get so tired of hearing the Calvinists say that "man has no desire to seek God." As if that must mean that when God produces the means to seek and save that which is lost that the man also doesn't have the ability to respond. This is silly.
Did Jesus tell the disciples "wait and the people will seek you, then make them disciples." No. Why? Because he knew they wouldn't seek Him. He said "Go and make disciples." That involves seeking and saving that which is lost. God has ordained the means to seek men, ITS CALLED THE GOSPEL. Its your assumption, based upon verses that never discuss man's inability to have faith, that man in unable to respond to the call of the HS through the powerful gospel message.
What does man's lack of desire to seek God have anything to do with man's lack of ability to respond to God's means of seeking him?
So if "no one is righteous" how could it be that Abraham was declared righteous? Because of his faith, not because of his works.
Did Abraham go out looking for God or did God call Him first? [/QB][/QUOTE] Here we go again assuming that because God initiates the contact that man must not be able to respond. There are a lot of people in the OT that God speaks to through his prophets who don't express faith and believe, some do but most don't.
You are correct and unless man is in fact "good" in contradiction to scripture- that faith is a gift of God so that no man may boast. If indeed man were able of his own accord to make the "good" choice of faith then it would be no minor good work. It would be a good work of soul saving proportion fully equal in value to Christ's sacrifice. You might object to this direct statement but consider what good Christ's death would accomplish without the power of man's "good" choice of faith under your system.
You assume that Eph. 2:8-9 must be refering to faith when it speaks about it not being not of yourself. But look at Romans 3:27 and following . Paul doesn't think faith is worth boasting about. Why? because its a gift of God? No. becasue its not a work of the Law. Grace throughout scripture is put up as the opposite of the works of the law, therefore Paul's intention in Eph. 2 is clearly saying that Grace or Salvation is not of yourself or its not of your works of the law so that no one can boast.
It would be contradictory of Paul to say that faith is not of yourself when throughout the scripture he refers to faith as being "your faith." While at the same time he refers to Grace as being in God's possession, "His grace."
Don't get me wrong, I do believe faith is a gift of God's grace. But I believe it's a gift of his common grace given to all men seen in Rom 1. It our responsiblity to exercise that faith in Christ.
"Without faith no one can please God."
"Only that which procedes from faith is good."
And faith is the means by which God gives us a new Spirit or regenerates us.
"so by faith we might receive the promise of the Spirit."
No argument with any of these statements. However, I reject your premise that the source of this faith is man's goodness rather than God's grace and mercy.
Who ever said our faith in Christ was a result of our goodness? Faith comes from hearing the good news of God's word (Rom. 10:17).
Once again you assume that man's response of Faith is seen as a work or merit and the scripture never teaches that. In fact, it teaches just the opposite in Roman 3:27 and following.