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Word of God

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by tinytim, Jun 17, 2008.

  1. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    Hmm, I wonder what you could be referring to? :laugh: ;)
     
  2. tinytim

    tinytim <img src =/tim2.jpg>

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    Thank you all for the info...

    So it all boils down to the context in which we write "the Word of God"

    Maybe we can do better in explaining what we mean when we say that.
     
  3. franklinmonroe

    franklinmonroe Active Member

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    Yes, I believe the possible meaning of 'Scripture' can be easily dismissed from Acts 6:7. That "the word of God kept on spreading" indicates that it is not a reference to the scriptures. This is almost certainly not a description of the 'Bible' since the apostolic Greek writings (New Testament) were not yet written at this time, and the ancient Hebrew writings had been readily available for quite a while, especially in Jerusalem. It was the 'new' Gospel message that was spreading.

    Taken out of it's context, some may think that Jesus used "word of God" and "scripture" as synonyms in John 10:35. The phrase "unto whom the word of God came" is an expansion on "them" (which itself is a reference to the patriarchs & prophets). The "word of God" came initially unto God's special appointees (John 10:34-35, KJV) --
    Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?
    If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;
    The words Jesus actually uses as synonomous here are "scripture" and "law"; Jesus confirms that the Torah is 'Scripture'. It is the entire Mosaic Law that "cannot be broken". The earlier NLT edition rendered it thus --
    Jesus replied, "It is written in your own law that God said to certain leaders of the people, 'I say, you are gods!'
    And you know that the Scriptures cannot be altered. So if those people, who received God's message, were called 'gods,'
    Rarely in the Old Testament did God give revelation intially in written form (stone tablets is one example). The patriarchs & prophets received most revelation and commands in verbal form (Adam in the Garden is one example). The recurring theme is that the prophets & apostles actually spoke God's words to our spiritual forefathers, while we have those words written down to 'speak' to us. I would suggest that "word of God" does not mean Scripture in John 10:35.

    Again, in Hebrews 4:12 where "the word of God is living and active and sharper than any two-edged sword" there is no indication that it must only be referring to a written form of God's revelation (but there's nothing in the text that excludes the 'Bible' here, either).
     
    #23 franklinmonroe, Jun 18, 2008
    Last edited by a moderator: Jun 18, 2008
  4. franklinmonroe

    franklinmonroe Active Member

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    Its good to see that some others 'get it' too!
     
  5. franklinmonroe

    franklinmonroe Active Member

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    I was actually thinking of some one else, John! (I hope you're not disappointed)
     
  6. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    Shucks. Being insecure, I was hoping for some attention. :wavey:
     
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