Featured Does God show partiality?

Yes, except you ignore the very next verse;

35 But in every nation he that feareth him, and worketh righteousness, is accepted with him.

This verse says those who fear God and work righteousness are accepted with him. Hardly unconditional.

Here you left out the preceding verses.

6 Who will render to every man according to his deeds:
7 To them who by patient continuance in well doing seek for glory and honour and immortality, eternal life:
8 But unto them that are contentious, and do not obey the truth, but obey unrighteousness, indignation and wrath,
9 Tribulation and anguish, upon every soul of man that doeth evil, of the Jew first, and also of the Gentile;
10 But glory, honour, and peace, to every man that worketh good, to the Jew first, and also to the Gentile:

God will render to every man according to his deeds, again, hardly unconditional.

Yes, ALL men are sinners, and the Lord had laid on him the iniquity of us ALL. This refutes Limited Atonement.

We are chosen "in him", that is, a person is chosen when he places trust in Jesus and is baptized into his body.

Oh, you will stand before God some day and answer to him, but the scriptures DO NOT show election unconditional.

 

Not necessarily... no. But, the inference from your theology could arise - i.e. man is not so scummy as to come to God of his own volition. But that is only by way of inference.

 

I don't see this as 2 ways. I am not saying that God chose based on nothing. He chose based on himself. It was not random but for his glory. There were not conditions but grace. Your either/or scenario is not adequately representing what myself and others have been saying.

 

Scripture does tell us "elect according to foreknowledge." But it doesn't tell us what God foreknew.

Enough for me to know both Arminians and Calvinists recognize God initiates and completes salvation.

Sometimes we argue this stuff or the number of angels that can fit on the head of a pin rather than evangelize.

Wow--just stepped on my own toes!

Edited to add: the reformed person sees God regenerating, part of which is giving the faith to receive Christ by grace. The wesleyan sees God as giving man the faith to receive Christ by grace, thus bringing regeneration.

Maybe both just describing the part of the elephant they see.

Either way, God gave the necessary grace, the salvation, and gets all the glory.

 

why did God select/chose out from ALL other nations and ethnic groups of the earthb at the time isreal, to be His covenant people?

 

NO! Winman, Jesus Christ took all my sins away, cast them into the depths of the sea.

 

Don't know about wesleyan's but some on this Board believe that the faith that saves is inherent in man. That essentially makes man the author of his salvation.

 

Actually, I think this passage needs to be rethought here.

1 Pet. 1:1-2

or in Greek

Notice how many words are between "elect" and "according to the foreknowledge". Not that such an arguments settles the case, but it does demonstrate the other options that the prepositional phrase "according to foreknowledge" could refer.

Being one of the "exiles" could be according to foreknowledge. It could be the Diaspora that is according to foreknowledge. It could even be limited to those believers who are a part of the Diaspora that is according to foreknowledge. Or, according to foreknowledge could refer to the locations listed. This is the closest antecedent to the phrase "according to foreknowledge". The exegetical options are numerous.

 

to get there, have to refute the notion of original Sin, and that God finds us in adam, and spiritually dead as direct result of the fall!