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KJV Versions.

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by 37818, Mar 19, 2021.

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  1. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    Sir, a "conjectural emendation" is NOT SCRIPTURE! Those words were ADDED to the KJV thanx to Beza's meddling.

    The purpose in pointing it out is to supply more proof that the KJV isn't perfect, & thus the KJVO myth is false.(Besides not having one word of Scriptural support!)
     
  2. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    But adding "the" in 1Tim. 6:10 makes the KJV's rendering inaccurate. Kinney has no excuse for that.
     
  3. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    What's a "KJB"? A new political action committee?

    Yes, God prefectly preserved His words in the KJV (NOT "KJB") except where He didn't. same is true for the Wycliffe, Tyndale, "Great", Mathews, Coverdale, Geneva, Bishop's, NASV, NKJV, ESV, & several other English versions as well. Betcha can't prove differently !
     
  4. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    The AV men said they diligently studied many other translations, & that likely included the Vulgate & Rheims. I don't know if they studied the Waldensian or Peshitta versions or not.
     
  5. rlvaughn

    rlvaughn Well-Known Member
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    Thanks. Unlike the case in Colossians, here on these two passages, the notes of John Bois (at least what Allen transcribes on pages 18 and 30) do not mention the Rheims translation or its readings in either of these passages. We should be careful to remember that correlation is not necessarily causation.
     
  6. rlvaughn

    rlvaughn Well-Known Member
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  7. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    I was being sarcastic. There's NO one translation of the Bible; they're all versions or editions.
     
  8. Stratton7

    Stratton7 Member

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    Corruption in Modern Bible Versions (Part 1) - Different Underlying Greek and Hebrew Manuscripts | The Excelsior Springs Church

    Corruption in Modern Bible Versions (Part 2) - Vaticanus and Sinaiticus; Changes in the NIV | The Excelsior Springs Church
     
  9. rlvaughn

    rlvaughn Well-Known Member
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    Yes, I know you were being sarcastic toward Stratton. You should have also been sarcastic with yourself when you asked about the "LS it's not a B". (But you weren't, and none of us were sarcastic with you when when we gave you info about the LSB. Perhaps we should have been.)
     
    #129 rlvaughn, Mar 30, 2021
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  10. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    Correlation does not always equal causation.
    Yet when there is direct first-hand evidence from one of the KJV translators that acknowledged that the 1582 Rheims was consulted and used, it makes it very likely and even fairly certain that the 1582 Rheims is the source followed by the KJV translators in many of those cases of correlation.

    Finding other possible sources in some of the cases would not refute the likely use of the 1582 Rheims in cases where there is no direct first-hand evidence that the KJV translators even used those other sources.
     
  11. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Nope, for that would apply only to the inspired Originals!
     
  12. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    I have read where certain KJVO claim that John was referring to the Kjv as being the Logos of God!
     
  13. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    By using both the Rheims and latin Vulgate in places, are they accrediting they were also inspired?
     
  14. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    Big difference between asking about a version which I know nothing about & working against a proven false doctrine.
     
  15. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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  16. rlvaughn

    rlvaughn Well-Known Member
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    You have claimed before you don't call any version Bible, that is, as in KJB, NASB, etc. Yet, you did write "Legacy Standard Bible" and "LSB." I don't care what you call it, but consistency here is a jewel that you apparently do not have.
     
    #136 rlvaughn, Mar 30, 2021
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  17. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    Thanx, but I've seen all this before.

    Now, none of us were there when any of the Scriptural mss. were made, & wedon't know who made them when or where, nor what their sources were. Thus, we're not qualified to say "This one is corrupt while that one is correct" just because they have a few differences. (The 4 "Gospels" have MANY differences.)

    The facts of the preservations of Sinaiticus & Vaticanus seem to show the hand of God at work.

    As for "missing verses", the translators were right to not include any that were not in their sources. Now, why do those sources not have them Maybe it's because they're not actually in Scripture !
     
  18. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    Now that I know what it is, it'll become the "LSV" in my vocabulary.
     
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  19. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    the differences between variants for ALL of the various Greek texts amount to maybe what 2%, and none affecting doctrines?
     
  20. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    Not to mention in the KJV the difference between the "Lord's Prayer" in Matthew & Mark.
     
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