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MV`s compared to JW`s NWT

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by pilgrim2009, Jul 23, 2009.

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  1. pilgrim2009

    pilgrim2009 New Member

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    Brother the Geneva/KJV was an acient landmark in founding this Country and Gods Word says not to remove them and modern bibles have done just what Gods Word KJB Forbids.

    The Geneva and KJV Come from the same exact sources and agree over 95% so dont hand me your secular reasoning.


    In Proverbs 22:28 the Bible says to "Remove not the ancient landmarks which thy fathers have set." A landmark is a surveyor's term and refers to a benchmark or property marker. Today, in most jurisdictions, it is against the law to move or alter a survey landmark.

    Christianity has its foundations in an authorizing and governing document. That document is the Bible. Any attorney will understand the critical nature of altering an authorizing and governing document. Because the Bible is in every sense the final and absolute foundation of what we as Christians believe and practice, it only is prudent that we be concerned that the foundation is sure and the benchmark has not been altered.

    For almost two millennia the church of Jesus Christ accepted a set of Greek and Hebrew texts that were received by virtually all gospel preaching, Bible believing churches of whatever group. This text was called the Received Text (or Textus Receptus in Latin). Down through the centuries biblical scholars and church leaders had assembled the existing Greek and Hebrew manuscripts of the Bible. From that compilation, the vast majority were in virtual agreement. These formed the basis of the Received Text.

    In the year 1611 A.D., King James I of England was influenced to provide a common Bible for the English speaking world. Hence, he authorized a translation of the Bible into English that came to be known as the Authorized Version or as it is more commonly known, the King James Version. King James selected a committee of Greek and Hebrew scholars from the Church of England. These men were "low church" individuals with ties to the Puritans and later the Pilgrims who emigrated to America. They worked from the text of the Greek and Hebrew testaments that had been received" or accepted by virtually all branches of gospel preaching, Bible believing Christians from the apostolic era to that time. Their product, the King James Version of the Bible, has been, until just recently, the universal standard for Bible believing Christians of the English speaking world.
     
  2. rbell

    rbell Active Member

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    What an unbelievable mis-application of Scripture.
     
  3. pilgrim2009

    pilgrim2009 New Member

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    Yes the truth pinches sometimes now lets think of language.


    There is undisputed eloquence and beauty in the King James Version. Moreover, the English language was at its zenith in the early 17th century for poetic beauty and eloquence. Interestingly, one of the major criticisms of the King James Version is actually a strength. People unacquainted with proper English complain about the use of "thee" and "thou" etc. in the King James text.

    However, as anyone who knows linguistics will attest, many languages have at one time had a common level which was spoken on the street and a higher or formal level that was used in reference to royalty and God. The usage of "thee" and "thou" etc. in old English is a form of higher English that no longer is commonly used. It originally was used in formal situations where deference and respect to nobility, royalty and Deity were appropriate.

    Unfortunately, our contemporary American English usage of "you" and "yours" etc. makes no allowance for such deference and brings all of our Ianguage back to the lower level. The King James Version respectfully and appropriately refers to God and other notables as "thee" or "thou" in accordance with their due respect. Most modern language translations have diluted that deference.
     
  4. pilgrim2009

    pilgrim2009 New Member

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    Does your Bible version command you to Study?


    2nd Timothy 2:15 in the ASV reads Give diligence to present thyself approved unto God.

    The KJB reads Study to shew thyself approved unto God The word "study" is much more direct and clear than to simply say "give diligence." Of all the bible versions sold on the market today, only the King James commands us to STUDY! Of course, greedy heretics don't want you to study your Bible. For centuries, Catholics have been discouraged from studying the Bible.

    The Vatican wants you to know enough to allow your priest to fill your head with vain traditions and lies of the devil. You had better study! Jesus commanded us in John 5:39... SEARCH THE SCRIPTURES!!! Of course, if you have an ASV then you have no command to study do you?


    Make sure your bible will pass the test that commands you to study.
     
  5. EdSutton

    EdSutton New Member

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    What a shame to have had computer problems for the last two days, and not been able to post. :tear:

    Almost as sad as some of the 'arguments' posted here in the interim. :rolleyes:

    pilgrim2009, check out what "study" actually meant in II Tim. 2:15 in the early 17th century.

    Incidentally, betcha' I could find at least three more versions, in less than two minutes, that one can still acquire today that still have the word "study" in that verse, if I tried very hard, FTR.
    We'll start with the D-R.
    Guess what? This version even renders this as "carefully study" in the verse. [SIGH!]

    Ed
     
    #85 EdSutton, Jul 26, 2009
    Last edited by a moderator: Jul 26, 2009
  6. annsni

    annsni Well-Known Member
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    I'm a sister (Ann is my name - the "sni" is part of my last name)

    No they haven't.

    All of the other versions agree over 95% of the time too.


    Hmm - my ESV says "Do not move the ancient landmark that your fathers have set." Sounds like it says the same thing! Tell me one "landmark" that this verse is speaking of in context that the modern versions changed.

    Wow - very interesting .... since the received text was not published until the 1600s - AFTER the KVJ was written. So how could the TR be around for almost two millennia??

    I know the history of the KJV and know that it's a trusted version of the Bible. But I know too that there are other versions that are trusted and written for TODAY'S language - not the language of 4 centuries ago. I fully trust my Bible that I use all the time as much as I trust the KJV.
     
  7. pilgrim2009

    pilgrim2009 New Member

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    Glad to hear it Ann sorry for calling you a brother.The KJB is the most accurate Bible that glorifies our LORD as no other because the rest are missing hundreds of Words.

    Since the KJB is 100% accurate then why go to those that are missing words that feeds your soul?
     
  8. annsni

    annsni Well-Known Member
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    Let's take a look at that word in the original language and see if the KJV passed the test of the English language in the year 2009:

    spoudazō = 1) to hasten, make haste; 2) to exert one's self, endeavour, give diligence

    This Greek word occurs 11 times in the KJV. It is translated as "endeavour" 3 times, "do diligence" 2 times, "be diligent" 2 times, "give diligence" 1 time, "be forward" 1 time, "labour" 1 time, and "study" 1 time.

    Let's see the verses that this word is used in:

    Galatians 2:10 "Only [they would] that we should remember the poor; the same which I also was forward to do. "

    Ephesians 4:3 "Endeavouring to keep the unity of the Spirit in the bond of peace. "

    1 Thess. 2:17 "But we, brethren, being taken from you for a short time in presence, not in heart, endeavoured the more abundantly to see your face with great desire."

    2 Tim. 2:15 "Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth. "

    2 Tim. 4:9 "Do thy diligence to come shortly unto me: "

    2 Tim. 4:21 "Do thy diligence to come before winter. Eubulus greeteth thee, and Pudens, and Linus, and Claudia, and all the brethren. "

    Titus 3:12 "When I shall send Artemas unto thee, or Tychicus, be diligent to come unto me to Nicopolis: for I have determined there to winter."

    Hebrews 4:11 "Let us labour therefore to enter into that rest, lest any man fall after the same example of unbelief. "

    2 Peter 1:10 "Wherefore the rather, brethren, give diligence to make your calling and election sure: for if ye do these things, ye shall never fall:"

    2 Peter 1:15 "Moreover I will endeavour that ye may be able after my decease to have these things always in remembrance. "

    2 Peter 3:14 "Wherefore, beloved, seeing that ye look for such things, be diligent that ye may be found of him in peace, without spot, and blameless."


    OK - So, which definition fits each of these verses: (definitions from the 1828 Webster's Dictionary)

    1) Literally, a setting of the mind or thoughts upon a subject; hence, application of mind of books, to arts or science, or to any subject, for the purpose of learning what is not before known.

    2) To endeavor diligently.
    (note - this definition in Webster's dictionary includes a verse: "That ye study to be quiet and do your own business. 1 Thessalonians 4." That would be verse 11 - which is actually a different Greek word "philotimeomai" which is used 3 times and is translated once each "strive", "labour", "study".)

    So, if it is to study as we know today (the first definition), then "study" should fit in each of these verses. Let's see how they work:

    Galatians 2:10 "Only [they would] that we should remember the poor; the same which I also was studied to do. "

    Ephesians 4:3 "Studying to keep the unity of the Spirit in the bond of peace. "

    1 Thess. 2:17 "But we, brethren, being taken from you for a short time in presence, not in heart, studied the more abundantly to see your face with great desire."

    Hmm - doesn't fit. So your entire argument crumbles into a big pile of nothingness, huh??
     
  9. annsni

    annsni Well-Known Member
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    Nope - no missing words. No missing doctrines. No missing Jesus. No missing blood. No missing God. My Bible is 100% true.
     
  10. pilgrim2009

    pilgrim2009 New Member

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    Sorry to hear ofyour computer prob`s.

    Enter Textual Criticism

    Textual criticism is an academic discipline in which scholars study existing Greek and Hebrew biblical manuscripts. Prior to the advent of the moveable type printing press in 1455 by Gutenberg, all copies of the Bible were hand copied by scribes and were called manuscripts. Because they were individually produced by human hands, they were prone to mistakes in manual copying.

    Textual critics study the various extant (existing) manuscripts and note any discrepancies that may have occurred between different copies. Then, by comparing them, a majority consensus is established. Should a misspelled word be found, or should a word have been accidentally added or omitted from a given manuscript, the textual critic endeavors to by consensus establish the correct reading.

    A major theory of textual criticism is that some later manuscripts were copied from earlier ones, therefore, the earlier manuscripts are presumed to be a more accurate source of the Scriptures. (The presumption is that scribal errors would accumulate in later copies). Hence, textual critics give much more credence to early manuscripts than to later copies even if the later be greater in number.

    The problem with this theory is that the early church had great reverence and respect for their "accepted" or "received" manuscripts of the Scriptures. Accordingly, when a given copy of the Scriptures became tattered and worn, it was carefully copied and then burned Hence, there are virtually no copies of the earliest manuscripts used by the churches.

    However, there is evidence that certain cults and sects within early Christians followed the opposite practice. They preserved their manuscripts regardless of condition. Therefore, the crucial premise of textual criticism - that the oldest manuscripts are always to be preferred to more recent copies is critically flawed.
     
    #90 pilgrim2009, Jul 26, 2009
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  11. rbell

    rbell Active Member

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    With that, you have elevated the KJV over the originals. Greek has no "thee" or "thou."

    Was that your intent?

    In this, you are saying that the KJV is better than the originals.

    If that were so important to God, then why didn't He have the originals written in English?

    That truth "pinches" as well.
     
  12. pilgrim2009

    pilgrim2009 New Member

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    My intent is the language of the KJV far advances modern day english.

    I felt no pinch.
     
  13. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    Or to employ better English you could have said:

    "My conviction is that the language used in the KJV exceeds that of contemporary English."
     
  14. franklinmonroe

    franklinmonroe Active Member

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    Sounds great. Where is this evidence documented?
     
  15. franklinmonroe

    franklinmonroe Active Member

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    Accurate as measured by what standard? Against its' supposed underlying texts? I don't think so. How many "missing" or untranslated words would it take to make the KJB inaccurate? One? Let's look at just these two --
    Then verily the first [covenant] had also ordinances of divine service, and a worldly sanctuary. (Hebrews 9:1, KJV)

    Not slothful in business; fervent in spirit; serving the Lord; (Romans 12:11, KJV)
    The Greek word skene (Strong's #4633) found in the Textus Receptus (Stephanus 1550 & others) goes untranslated in the first verse of Hebrews Chapter Nine. The exact same Greek word is translated in the KJV in the very next verse as "tabernacle". The English word "covenant" is italicized or [bracketed] in print as if to indicate that it is NOT being supported by any underlying Greek word but rather an insertion by the translators. Therefore, 'tabernacle' seems to be completely missing from the KJV translation here.

    A form of the Greek word kairos (Strong's #2540) is found in the TR at Romans 12:11 which is predominately rendered in the KJV as "time". The English word "Lord" is usually supported by a similarly spelled Greek word kurios (Strong's #2962), but kurios does not occur in this verse in the Greek of Stephanus and others. 'Time' is missing from the KJV translation, or (most of) the TRs are in error at this verse.
     
    #95 franklinmonroe, Jul 26, 2009
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  16. rsr

    rsr <b> 7,000 posts club</b>
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    It would be a nice justification, perhaps, if it were true. But it's not.

    The use of "thee" vs. "you" in the KJV is one of number, not deferential address. "Thee" is singular; "you" is plural. That's pretty much the story for KJV usage.

    For example, "thou" is used when addressing the Almighty, for the simple fact that God is one, not plural. "Thou" also is used when addressing Satan (see Job) or when Balaam talks to his recalcitrant donkey. And Balaam said unto the ass, Because thou hast mocked me: I would there were a sword in mine hand, for now would I kill thee. (Numbers 22:29) Balaam, one assumes, was not speaking to the donkey deferentially.

    Now, outside the KJV one can find a bifurcation of the use of "thee" and "you," but in the opposite direction than you have presented. "Thee" was used for intimates, inferiors and God. "You" was used for social equals, on formal occasions and for people of higher rank. Kings, for example, were the first to treated as plurals (a practice that apparently started in French and metastasized into English); the practice gradually slid down the social scale — if you're not sure whether you're addressing an inferior or a superior, it's better to be safe with "you" than sorry with "thee" — so that "you" replaced "thee" in practically all applications.

    (The Quakers tried the opposite tack, using "thee" for everyone as a token of their belief in social equality. They kept that preference while the rest of the English-speaking world adopted "you.")
     
  17. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    And I provided some of the same info in my #11 post of the "KJV Book Review" for his educational betterment.
     
  18. EdSutton

    EdSutton New Member

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    Thanks for your concern about our computer.

    That said, exactly what does your duly noted (and reported) plagiarism have to do with the response to the post I made? (FTR, it took me all of about 6 seconds to find multiple listings of this!)

    You are the one who made the false allegation about no other versions rendering this translation as 'study' in II Tim. 2:15, not me.

    I merely showed one quick example of one that does not render in the manner, that you alleged. Others include the GEN, TMB, WBT, KJ21, and I am not even going to waste any more time, to find how many others. (I did say three, remember??)

    And what is the response I received? A 'quote' that originated with another, that is, at best, questionable as to his memory as to his own importance to another version. In addition, he is deceased, and cannot even be questioned about his memory. However, multiple contemporaries and sometimes colleagues have said his recollection is faulty, at best, in this. (Yes, I can give references, if necessary, else I would not have made this statement!)

    Surely you can do better than plagiarism and avoidance to the questions posed, frankly. :(

    Ed
     
    #98 EdSutton, Jul 27, 2009
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  19. EdSutton

    EdSutton New Member

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    Calling C4K!

    Since Dr. Bob has described the KJ-1611 as the "Anglican Version" can the rest of us mere mortals do the same, now, as this is intended to be 'descriptive' rather than 'pejorative' and in the same manner that I describe both the NKJV and HCSB as 'Baptist' versions, or the D-R as a 'Catholic' version?

    FTR, I have asked this before, and I also have not made any comments about any practices of "baby-baptizing Anglican priests" in any of my own posts, even. ;)

    Ed
     
    #99 EdSutton, Jul 27, 2009
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  20. pilgrim2009

    pilgrim2009 New Member

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    Brethren please read this in its entirety.The complete article can be found at the link below.Well worth the time to read it.



    Accurate Translations

    The question arises: How are we to know which translation is the most accurate? (17) As noted above, the controversy here is not over the Old, but the New Testament, at least as regards the textual issues. Just in the last century there have been numerous new translations, including the American Standard Version, the Revised Standard Version, the New American Standard Version, the New International Version, the English Standard Version, and the New King James Version. Most of these new translations (the New King James Version being an exception) are based upon a Greek text of the New Testament, known as the Alexandrian Text or Critical Text, (18) that differs from the Greek text underlying the King James Version (and New King James Version), known as the Received Text (Textus Receptus), in over 5000 ways. Most newer translations rely heavily on a handful of early Greek manuscripts (particularly two: Codex Sinaiticus (19) and [especially] Codex Vaticanus) that were discovered in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries. The theory that these documents (the alleged "neutral" text) are to be favored, primarily due to their greater age, was promulgated by B. F. Westcott and F. J. A. Hort. (20) If it were true that the earlier codices are to be considered as the most trustworthy, then it would seem that they ought to differ the least among themselves. But this is not the case; even among these few manuscripts, there are numerous differences. (21)
    The Westcott-Hort theory further maintains that some 85-90 percent of Greek manuscripts represented by the Received Text, which, unlike the Alexandrian Text, are in substantial agreement, underwent a radical editing process in the fourth century. Hence, they are unreliable. Other studies, however, have shown that this is simply not the case. "History is completely silent," wrote Harry Sturz, "with regard to any revision of the Byzantine [Received] Text." (22) As a matter of fact, there is evidence to show that the Alexandrian manuscripts were the ones tampered with, and these deliberate changes are the reason that these documents are so dissimilar. (23) As William Einwechter commented: "Due to this nearly total rejection of the value of the Byzantine [Received] Text as a witness to the original autographs, the scholars have established the MCT [Alexandrian Text] on the basis of only 10-15% of the available manuscripts." (24)

    The Majority Text

    Another group of New Testament scholars argues that the readings of the majority of manuscripts are to be preferred to the readings of a few older manuscripts. This is referred to as the Majority Text or Byzantine (25) Text theory. Because this text has been handed down and preserved by the church through the centuries, it is also referred to as the Traditional Text or Ecclesiastical Text. The Received Text belongs to the manuscripts of the Majority Text, but is not perfectly identical with it. (26) As far as this article is concerned, the Received Text and the Majority Text are used as generally synonymous terms. As stated by E. F. Hills: "The Textus Receptus is practically identical with the Byzantine text found in the vast majority of the Greek New Testament manuscripts." (27)

    According to the Westcott-Hort theory, manuscripts are to be weighed, not counted. After all, it is alleged, all of the Byzantine Text came from one related family. Hence, the great number of them carries little weight. According to the Byzantine Text theory, on the other hand, greater age is not nearly so important as number. First, one text being older than another in no way implies that it is superior. The older text itself could be errant. Too, the weight of textual evidence now reveals that the Byzantine Text readings go back at least to the time of Codex Vaticanus and Codex Sinaiticus. Contrary to the teachings of Westcott-Hort, wrote Harry Sturz, "distinctively Byzantine readings of every kind have been shown to be early." They are attested to by early papyri and several of the church fathers. (28) In the words of William Einwechter, it is virtually certain that "this text [TR] was in continuous use in the Greek church from at least the 4th century until the time of the Reformation when Erasmus made this text the basis for the first printed edition of the Greek NT." (29) The fact that we do not possess any early copies of the Byzantine Text is easily explained: (1) the climate in Egypt, where the early Alexandrian Text manuscripts were found, is more arid, thus any text would last longer there; (2) the Egyptian manuscripts were probably not used, due to their corrupt nature, and therefore lasted longer, whereas the majority of manuscripts was frequently used and these manuscripts "wore out." (30)


    Second, if numbers of similar manuscripts have a single ancestor, as is alleged to be the case with the Byzantine Text, it does not necessarily mean that the greater number carries little weight. It may well imply that the copyists of that day believed that ancestor to be the manuscript most faithful to the original. The manuscripts that are fewer in number were in all probability rejected by copyists; their scarcity indicates their corrupt nature. (31) Further, it is not the case that the numerous manuscripts of the Byzantine Text have all come from one common parent. Indeed, there is strong evidence to suggest that the Byzantine Text documents come from numerous parts of Christendom, and are not related genealogically. (32)
    Third, the churches in the East used the Byzantine Text for over 1000 years prior to the Reformation. The churches of the Reformation used the same text for another 350 years, and some still continue to use it. As stated by E. F. Hills, the Byzantine text was the Greek New Testament text in general use throughout the greater part of the Byzantine period (312-1453). For many centuries before the Protestant Reformation this Byzantine text was the text of the entire Greek church and for more than three centuries after the Reformation it was the text of the entire Protestant church. Even today it is the text which most Protestants know best, since the King James Version and other early Protestant translations were made from it. (33)

    Moreover, there is every reason to believe that this same text was preserved "throughout the second and third centuries and down into the fourth century." (34) If the scholars who have followed Westcott-Hort theory in opting for the Alexandrian Text are correct, then the church, in many cases, has been without the most authentic text of the New Testament for nearly two millennia. This in itself does not indicate that God has "by His singular care and providence kept pure in all ages" the New Testament text. (35) This erroneous approach to textual criticism is more rationalistic than Biblical. It is highly subjective, rather than Biblically objective. It even has an Hegelian flair to it, supposing that somehow there must be a "progressive" element to textual criticism. (36)





    http://gospelpedlar.com/articles/Bible/kjv_manuscript.html
     
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