3 days and 3 nights

[john6:63]

rstrats,

Review Genesis 1, in the beginning God created the heavens and the earth and He defined what day was, by saying, light was day and darkness was night and the evening and morning were the first day. God created on day one. Jim’s visit to the dentist was on day one, between the morning and evening hours. This is about as simplified as I can get.

Now, there are probably tons of explanations for this alleged Bible difficulty of the 3 days and 3 nights, but the explanation below is one I found while surfing the net and I can’t for the life of me find the source. I’ve been meaning to run this by my Associate Pastor, but I haven’t found the time. So my opinion may very well change in the future. But here it is anyhow or at least what I can remember.

Matthew 12:38-40 the scribes and Pharisees ask Jesus for a sign. The sign Jesus gives them was the sign of Jonah the prophet who spent 3 days and 3 nights in the belly of a whale. He then says that so shall the Son of Man be 3 days and 3 nights in the heart of the earth. According to Genesis 1, we could get 3 days if Jesus was crucified part day Friday, all day Saturday and part day Sunday, but we would have a problem getting the 3 nights out of this

Psalm 16:10 and Acts 2:24-32, has always been thought of a prophecy concerning the death of Jesus. The verses indicate that Jesus’ body will not see corruption. We know that the human body starts to see corruption within hours of death. This is the reason hospital or funeral homes refrigerate their dead. Granted Jesus was God, He was still in human form subjected to nature, which is also why He could die for the sins of the world.

Jesus said He would be in the heart of the earth not grave. Jesus used the word grave before, but didn’t this time. We know from scripture that Jonah wasn’t dead but confined in the whales’ belly, unable to escape and forced to follow through with Gods plan.

So the 3 days and 3 nights start with Jesus’ first betrayal. And when was Jesus first betrayed?

In Matt. 26:1-16 there is the account of Jesus attending a meal at the house of Simon the leper in Bethany (vs. 6). Verse 14 is the initial betrayal, when Judas says he will deliever Jesus to them, the chief priests and he receives 30 pieces of silver. At this point, Jesus is like that of Jonah, confined and forced to carry out Gods divine will, He is betrayed. Verse 2 indicates that it was 2 days until Passover and Jesus ate the Passover meal the night before his crucifixion. According to John 13:21-30, Judas completes the betrayal after the Thursday night Passover meal and of course Jesus was crucified the following day, Friday. So if the Last Supper (Passover) was on Thursday night, then the dinner at Simon the Leper's house was on Tuesday night -- two full 24-hour days before!

The days and nights begin on Tuesday night, the first betrayal by Judas, 2 days before the Passover and ends on Friday night.

Tuesday night, Wednesday night & Thursday night = 3 nights.

Wednesday, Thursday & Friday = 3 days.

Jesus was crucified and died at 3:00 P.M. the 9th hour on Friday, the Preparation day for the Seventh-day Sabbath. He was placed in the tomb before sundown Friday evening and He was resurrected on Friday evening right after sundown at the very beginning of the Seventh-day Sabbath!! Again, days, or twenty-four hour time periods, are measured from evening to evening. See Genesis Chapter 1.

The women came to the tomb Sabbath morning before dawn (Mark 16:9, Luke 24:1, John 20:1) and the tomb was empty. Jesus had already risen!

He died and was buried before sundown - and was resurrected right after sundown. That's why His body did not see corruption

He died at 3:00 P.M. Friday afternoon, was placed in the tomb BEFORE sundown, but was resurrected immediately AFTER sundown at the very beginning of the 7th day Sabbath (Friday evening). Also, God didn't need the angels to roll away the stone for His resurrection, but humans needed that to happen so they could look in and see that Jesus was gone.

 

[spurgeon2004]

Let's not get hung up on such trivial matters and be thankful that he did resurrect from the grave. I think we are trying to be to logical. Any part of a day was considered a whole day.
Praise the Lord we serve a risen savior.

 

[wopik]

john 6:63

Matthew 12:40 never says grave, it says heart of the earth. Jesus uses the word grave twice in the gospels, but not in Matthew 12:40.

According to Strong’s the Greek for grave is mnemeion meaning grave, sepulchre or tomb.

Show us how Jesus was dead for three days and three nights (Matt 12:40) with a friday crucifixion.

 

[Jim W]

rstrats...

That would be incorrect. If I had had a tooth filled on Friday morning then on Sunday evening I would have to say that it was the second day SINCE I had the tooth filled because Saturday would have been the first day SINCE I had it filled.

rstrats. The sun comes up in the east. It sets in the west. When that journey of the star in our solar system is complete, a day has passed. If I do something right on the front end of that cycle, just as the sun has started it's journey, by the time the sun is setting in the west a day would have passed since I did whatever it was that I did. Have you ever used the phrase, "well, another day has come and gone", in the evening of that same day? Yes, rstrats, if you filled your tooth in the early morning, then that evening would be a day since you had your tooth filled. I said...

Let's get it out of the realm of the theoretical, and put it into everyday terms.

You don't like that, do you? You'd rather put it back into the nether world of philosophy and theory. I can see why. I noticed you didn't dispute the illustration of the vacation. Because it's just common, everyday talk.

freeatlast...

Show me how Jesus was in the grave three days and three nights with a friday crucifixion. Spell it out like you did the vacation trip.

Wopik...

Show us how Jesus was in the grave three days and three nights (Matt 12:40) with a friday crucifixion.

Wopik...

Show us how Jesus was dead for three days and three nights (Matt 12:40) with a friday crucifixion.

How about this. Since the Matt. 12:40 passage is in conflict - on the surface - with Luke 24:20,21, how about looking for the solution to the problem without jumping to conclusions, then treating those conclusions as fact? Hmm? That's what's called "circular reasoning" when you do that. Let me show you...

Wopik says...

Show us how Jesus was dead for three days and three nights (Matt 12:40) with a friday crucifixion

Wopik has already, in his/her mind, decided that there is no way that this phrase is a Hebrew idiom. Therefore, he/she is ASSUMING to be true what he/she has not proved to be true. Then, turned around and used his/her ASSUMPTION as EVIDENCE.

I made a claim to freatlast; and by extension to Wopik and rstrats. I said...

In fact, I can take you to an historical source that can prove that just such an idiom was commonly used by the Jews at that time; a source that has no dog in the fight.

And I issued a challenge...

Can you show me a historical source that says that the Jews commonly called Sunday the third day from Wednesday? I don't think you can.

No one took me up on my challenge. I'm going to back my claim up...

"A day and night are an Onah [a portion of time], and the portion of an Onah is as the whole of it."

Rabbi Eleazar ben Azariah, from the first century
Jerusalem Talmud: Shabbath ix 3 ; see also Babylonian Talmud: Pesahim 4a.

O.K. you three. I've dispelled the lie that Luke 24:20,21 is referring to the setting of the seal and guard. No reply from you three. I've shown how in common usage, Sunday is the third day from Friday. Not one of you disputed the vacation illustration. I've challenged you to offer historic evidence that Sunday was commonly called the third day from Wednesday. None of you touched it. I did supply historical proof that the Hebrew idiom that I claimed was used in the Matt. 12:40 did exist at that time. So, now what?

Here's my challenge to the three of you. Show me how Sunday is the third day since Wednesday.

It's time to either fish, or cut bait, fellows.

Jim

 

[freeatlast]

Jim,
do i assume by your not showing how to get three days and three nights in the grave using a friday crucifixion that you cannot do it?

 

[ballfan]

Mat 12:40 For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.


Thats a specific prophecy. More specific than just saying three days or he would arise on the third day. The problem seems to be how Jesus will spend three nights in the heart of the earth.

Mat 28:1 In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre.


From this it would appear He rose on the sabbath. It looks like all you have to do is count back three nights. Saturday would be the third day.

It would appear to be the crucifixion during the day on Wednesday with the first night beginning at sundown Wednesday beginning the high sabbath of the passover. The first day would begin at sun up Thursday. Second night at sundown Thursday. Second day at sun up Friday. Third night at sundown Friday beginning the sabbath. Third day beginning at sun up Saturday. He arose on the third day.

 

[rstrats]

Jim W,

re: “Have you ever used the phrase, ‘Well another day has come and gone’, in the evening of that same day?”

I probably have, but I would never say that “Today is the first day since I had a tooth filled” if I had had it filled today. To see if anyone else would, I asked 17 people the following question: “If I said that today (Thursday) is the first day since I had a tooth filled, on what day did I have it filled?” Without exception, the answer given was Wednesday.


re: “I noticed you didn’t dispute the illustration of the vacation.”

Since your vacation analogy wasn’t applicable to the terminology of Luke 24:21, I didn’t think it necessary to comment on it. Sorry.


re: “Can you show me a historical source that says that the Jew commonly called Sunday the third day from Wednesday? I don’t think you can.”

I don’t think so either, since Sunday is the 4th day from Wednesday.


re: “ A day and night are an Onah [a portion of time], and the portion of an Onah is as the whole of it.”

That quote by Rabbi Eliezar Ben Azariah, is contradicted by Rabbi Ismael, Rabbi Jochanan, and Rabbi Akiba who all agree that an onah was 12 hours long, either a day OR a night. “Commentary on the New Testament from the Talmud and Hebraica”.


re: “I’ve dispelled the lie that Luke 24:20,21 is referring to the setting of the seal and guard. No reply from you three.”

I never said that “these things” in Luke 24:21 included the sealing and the guard. But let me ask you, how do you know that anyone is lying about it, and not just honestly mistaken (if they are)?


What is there in scripture that makes it absolutely necessary for you to find a way to make Matthew 12:40 and Luke 24:21 say something other than what they literally say? Why can’t you accept at least parts of 3 days AND at least parts of 3 nights?

 

[john6:63]

Originally posted by ballfan:
Mat 12:40 For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.


Thats a specific prophecy. More specific than just saying three days or he would arise on the third day. The problem seems to be how Jesus will spend three nights in the heart of the earth.

Mat 28:1 In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre.


From this it would appear He rose on the sabbath. It looks like all you have to do is count back three nights. Saturday would be the third day.

It would appear to be the crucifixion during the day on Wednesday with the first night beginning at sundown Wednesday beginning the high sabbath of the passover. The first day would begin at sun up Thursday. Second night at sundown Thursday. Second day at sun up Friday. Third night at sundown Friday beginning the sabbath. Third day beginning at sun up Saturday. He arose on the third day.

The only problem I have with the Wednesday crucifixion is that in Psalm 16:10 and Acts 2:24-32 indicates that Jesus’ body will NOT see corruption. After 3 days and 3 nights His body would have seen corruption.

 

[freeatlast]

He was risen befor any corruption took place.

 

[rstrats]

john6:63,

You think that the being who spoke the world into existence couldn’t keep the Messiah’s body from deteriorating?

 

[ballfan]

The only problem I have with the Wednesday crucifixion is that in Psalm 16:10 and Acts 2:24-32 indicates that Jesus’ body will NOT see corruption. After 3 days and 3 nights His body would have seen corruption.

Apparently three days was not long enough. There could be reasons for that. Of course God was in control of events.

We also have the example of Lazarus. Did Jesus bring him back to life corrupted? I doubt it.

 

[KeithS]

As I recall from my class on the Gospel of John (many years ago) the prof said something about the Jews not considering the dead body "corrupt" until after four days. I don't recall the entire context of the discussion, but supposedly that was why Christ delayed his visit to Lazarus - to dispel any notion that Lazarus might not have really been dead, etc. I'll have to try to find my old notes and source information.

 

[Jim W]

rstrats...

I probably have, but I would never say that “Today is the first day since I had a tooth filled” if I had had it filled today. To see if anyone else would, I asked 17 people the following question: “If I said that today (Thursday) is the first day since I had a tooth filled, on what day did I have it filled?” Without exception, the answer given was Wednesday.

And once again, my friend, you set up a false dichotomy. I read your post this morning, before I went to work. I decided to do my own poll. The difference between my question and yours is, I phrased it exactly as it is in Luke.

I walked up to people and said, "help me settle an argument". Then I laid it out for them like this - without telling them it was about the Bible or anything at all. I said, "I had a tooth filled Wednesday morning and 9:00a.m. What day is it since I had my tooth filled? Before you answer, I mean is it the 6th day, 10th day, etc."
Then I asked them if they understood the question. When they said yes, I told them to wait before answering and let me state it one more time. The I restated, "I had a tooth filled Wednesday morning and 9:00a.m. What day is it since I had my tooth filled?" Some of them answered right off, some took a minute to think about it. Do you know what everyone of them said, rstrats? They said that this evening (Friday evening) was the third day since I had my tooth filled. Every single cotton picking one of them. Then I told them that I hadn't really had a tooth filled Wednesday, I was just setting up a hypothetical situation, and left it at that. They still don't know what it was about.
rstrats, a person can get any answer to any question they want, if they phrase the question right. That's why in this case, it must be phrased exactly as it is in Luke.

re: “I noticed you didn’t dispute the illustration of the vacation.”

Since your vacation analogy wasn’t applicable to the terminology of Luke 24:21, I didn’t think it necessary to comment on it. Sorry.

No need to be sorry, but you won't mind if I disagree with you? The terminology in the vacation analogy was exactly applicable to the Luke terminology. With one exception. I had you arriving in Florida in the afternoon, when the Luke passage has the last of the "these things" being completed by 9:00a.m. But that doesn't help you, that hurts you.

re: “ A day and night are an Onah [a portion of time], and the portion of an Onah is as the whole of it.”

That quote by Rabbi Eliezar Ben Azariah, is contradicted by Rabbi Ismael, Rabbi Jochanan, and Rabbi Akiba who all agree that an onah was 12 hours long, either a day OR a night. “Commentary on the New Testament from the Talmud and Hebraica”.

Alright, let's just turn to the "Commentary on the New Testament from the Talmud and Hebraica", by Lightfoot, and see what it says...

40. For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.

[The Son of man shall be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.] 1. The Jewish writers extend that memorable station of the unmoving sun at Joshua's prayer to six-and-thirty hours; for so Kimchi upon that place: "According to more exact interpretation, the sun and moon stood still for six-and-thirty hours: for when the fight was on the eve of the sabbath, Joshua feared lest the Israelites might break the sabbath: therefore he spread abroad his hands, that the sun might stand still on the sixth day, according to the measure of the day of the sabbath, and the moon, according to the measure of the night of the sabbath, and of the going-out of the sabbath; which amounts to six-and-thirty hours."

II. If you number the hours that passed from our Saviour's giving up the ghost upon the cross to his resurrection, you shall find almost the same number of hours; and yet that space is called by him "three days and three nights," when as two nights only came between, and only one complete day. Nevertheless, while he speaks these words, he is not without the consent both of the Jewish schools, and their computation. Weigh well that which is disputed in the tract Schabbath, concerning the uncleanness of a woman for three days; where many things are discussed by the Gemarists concerning the computation of this space of three days. Among other things these words occur; "R. Ismael saith, Sometimes it contains four Onoth sometimes five, sometimes six. But how much is the space of an Onah? R. Jochanan saith either a day or a night." And so also the Jerusalem Talmud; "R. Akiba fixed a day for an Onah, and a night for an Onah: but the tradition is, that R. Eliezar Ben Azariah said, A day and a night make an Onah, and a part of an Onah is as the whole." And a little after, R. Ismael computeth a part of the Onah for the whole.

It is not easy to translate the word Onah into good Latin: for to some it is the same with the half of a natural day; to some it is all one with a whole natural day. According to the first sense we may observe, from the words of R. Ismael, that sometimes four Onoth, or halves of a natural day, may be accounted for three days: and that they also are so numbered that one part or the other of those halves may be accounted for a whole. Compare the latter sense with the words of our Saviour, which are now before us: "A day and a night (saith the tradition) make an Onah, and a part of an Onah is as the whole." Therefore Christ may truly be said to have been in his grave three Onoth, or three natural days (when yet the greatest part of the first day was wanting, and the night altogether, and the greatest part by far of the third day also), the consent of the schools and dialect of the nation agreeing thereunto. For, "the least part of the Onah concluded the whole." So that according to this idiom, that diminutive part of the third day upon which Christ arose may be computed for the whole day, and the night following it.
"Commentary on the New Testament from the Talmud and Hebraica", by Lightfoot

http://philologos.org/__eb-jl/matt12.htm

At the very best, you've pointed out that there were two different understandings of the idiom. But Lightfoot indicates that an Onah being 24 hours was the majority view.

Don't miss this part, rstrats...

the consent of the schools and dialect of the nation agreeing thereunto.

I don't think you can turn to John Lightfoot to help, he concludes the opposite of what you do.

rstrats, did you know that Matt. was originally said to have been written in Hebrew? Do you suppose that the original phrase in Matt. 12:40 may have read "3 ONAH"? I don't know, but I'm going to do some digging when I have time.

re: “I’ve dispelled the lie that Luke 24:20,21 is referring to the setting of the seal and guard. No reply from you three.”

I never said that “these things” in Luke 24:21 included the sealing and the guard. But let me ask you, how do you know that anyone is lying about it, and not just honestly mistaken (if they are)?

O.K., point taken, but I wasn't referring to you. I was referring to Wopik. I think I know who he is, and if I'm right, I know he knows better, because I've shown him that error on numerous occasions over the years, and he keeps going back to it.

What is there in scripture that makes it absolutely necessary for you to find a way to make Matthew 12:40 and Luke 24:21 say something other than what they literally say? Why can’t you accept at least parts of 3 days AND at least parts of 3 nights?

O.K. I confess. You've lost me. Would you care to elaborate?

freeatlast...

Jim,
do i assume by your not showing how to get three days and three nights in the grave using a friday crucifixion that you cannot do it?

I'm sorry, freeatlast, I must not have made my reply clear. I said...

How about this. Since the Matt. 12:40 passage is in conflict - on the surface - with Luke 24:20,21, how about looking for the solution to the problem without jumping to conclusions, then treating those conclusions as fact? Hmm?

Wopik has already, in his/her mind, decided that there is no way that this phrase is a Hebrew idiom. Therefore, he/she is ASSUMING to be true what he/she has not proved to be true. Then, turned around and used his/her ASSUMPTION as EVIDENCE.

I thought I'd been clear enough that I though the "three days and three nights" was a Hebrew idiom. Of course I can't put 3 days and 3 nights between Friday morning and Sunday evening. And we both know it. And we both also know that you can't make Sunday evening the third day since Wednesday morning. Therefore, since we both know these things, it ought to be patently obvious to us that one of these two passages is some sort of figure of speech, or an idiom, or something. Wouldn't you agree?

Hey, ballfan. You raise a good point in your first post at the top of the page. I'm in the middle of my 12 hour shifts right now and don't have time to dig into it; but stand by. As soon as I get time I want to look at it with you.

Y'all keep the fire going, I'm going to bed. I'll be back in a few days...

Jim

 

[wopik]

Jim W ---

I thought I'd been clear enough that I though the "three days and three nights" was a Hebrew idiom.

"The fact that "three days" is used by Hebrew idiom for any part of three days and three nights is not disputed; because that was the common way of reckoning, just as it was when used of years. Three or any number of years was used inclusively of any part of those years, as may be seen in the reckoning of the reigns of any of the kings of Israel and Judah.

"But, when the number of "nights" is stated as well as the number of "days", then the expression ceases to be an idiom, and becomes a literal statement of fact."

http://www.therain.org/appendixes/app144.html

 

[Jim W]

bump

 

[Jim W]

Hi, Wopik.
I've read that appendix in Bullinger's Companion Bible before. The Companion Bible also lays out a chronology for the week of the crucifixion. It does so dogmatically. It makes liberal use of the word "fact". But, in reality, many of the "facts" it cites are nothing of the sort. In fact, it lays out "facts" that it does not document or prove. I'm sorry, but I don't just accept something as "fact" just because someone assures me it's so. If I did, I'd be schizophrenic by now. Because, as we've seen even in this debate, lot's of stuff have been referred to as "fact" on both sides. The problem is that some of the stuff that we've been assured is "fact" disagrees with other stuff we've been assured is "fact". But in reality, the actual facts don't disagree with each other.

The Companion Bible appendix states...

But, when the number of "nights" is stated as well as the number of "days", then the expression ceases to be an idiom, and becomes a literal statement of fact.

Hmm. Now, prove that, and you've got a good start toward proving your case. The thing is, Bullinger's Companion Bible makes this statement and leaves it hanging. It offers no documentation or verification of any sort. It is stated as fact, and expected to be accepted as fact. Sorry. I expect verification of assertions. What I'm about to show you is evidence that what the Companion Bible asserts is not true.

Gen 7:4 For yet seven days, and I will cause it to rain upon the earth forty days and forty nights; and every living substance that I have made will I destroy from off the face of the earth.

1Ki 19:8 And he arose, and did eat and drink, and went in the strength of that meat forty days and forty nights unto Horeb the mount of God.

Mat 4:2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward an hungred.

Israel wandered 40 years in the wilderness. Ezekiel was commanded to lie on his side 40 days. The spies spent 40 days in Canaan. The Jewish Encyclopedia states...

In the Bible, next to the number seven, the number forty occurs most frequently. In Talmudical literature it is often met with, in many instances having been apparently used as a round number or as a concrete and definite expression in place of the abstract and indefinite "many" or "some," and hence becoming a symbolical number. As regards the period of forty years, the Jews seem to have shared with other peoples, especially the Greeks, the notion that the fortieth year was the height or acme of man's life; and from this fact forty years came to represent a generation (compare Nöldeke, "Untersuchungen zur Kritik des Alten Testaments," p. 188).

http://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/view.jsp?artid=274&letter=F&search=forty%20days%20and%20forty%20nights

Also from a Jewish site...
To cite one example: the number forty has come to symbolize beginnings and new beginnings. Thus, creation is renewed after forty days of flooding. The covenant with the Jewish people, our beginning as a nation, is granted after Moses' sojourn of forty days on Mount Sinai. Following the rebellion of the people as a result of the report of the spies, the Jewish people is condemned to forty years of wandering in the wilderness before a new beginning can be contemplated. The embryo is considered viable forty days after conception. Gestation takes forty weeks.[23]
Every time one finds the number forty in Torah, its inner meaning is the ascent from one level to the next higher one.

So, the term "forty days and forty nights" is not precluded from being an idiom, even though "nights" are stated, too.
But, what about "three days and three nights"? The Talmud explains....

Now it came to pass on the third day, Israel are never left in dire distress more than three days. For so of Abraham it is written, On the third day Abraham lifted up his eyes, and saw the place afar off (ib. XXII, 4). Of Jacob's sons we read, And he put them all together into ward three days (ib. XLII, 17). Of Jonah it says, And Jonah was in the belly of the fish three days and three nights (Jonah II, 1). The dead also will come to life only after three days, as it says, On the third day He will raise us up, that we may live in His presence (Hos. VI, 2). This miracle also [of Mordecai and Esther] was performed after three days of their fasting, as it is written, Now it came to pass on the third day, that Esther put on her royal apparel, and she sent and invited Haman to the banquet on the fifteenth of Nisan. (Midrash Rabbah - Esther IX:2)

We see here that in the Talmud, NO DISTINCTION is made between a statement that includes "nights", and those that don't. The idiom can apply in either case.

In Bullinger's appendix, he dogmatically asserts that the Jewish idiom does not apply when the phrase lists "days" and "nights". It's obvious from the above statement that the Jews would disagree with Bullinger.

Jim

 

[ballfan]

Hi Jim W,

From the verse we see three nights are a requirement.

How about working it out from just the three nights part of the verse?

 

[wopik]

Jim W

I'm sorry, but I don't just accept something as "fact" just because someone assures me it's so.

It seems to me most people have done just that. They have accepted the "Friday-Sunday" idea without every looking into it.

 

[wopik]

More Proof of a Wednesday Crucifixion

Daniel the prophet received an intriguing prophecy from the archangel Gabriel in Daniel 9:24-27. This passage is known as the Seventy Weeks Prophecy, for Gabriel gives a seventy-week time frame for the coming of the Messiah. He divides the first sixty-nine weeks into two periods, the first of seven weeks and the second of sixty-two weeks.

And after the sixty-two weeks Messiah shall be cut off, but not for Himself. . . . Then He shall confirm a covenant with many for one week [the seventieth week]; but in the middle of the week He shall bring an end to sacrifice and offering.

The prophecy shows that the Messiah would die, "but not for Himself." That is in perfect agreement with the sacrificial death of Jesus Christ! He gave Himself to redeem us from our bondage to sin and death (Galatians 1:3-5; Ephesians 2:1).


Next, the prophecy says He would "confirm a covenant with many." Is this not what He did? Did He not become the Mediator of a new and better covenant (Hebrews 9:15)? When He instituted the new symbols for the Passover, Jesus says about the wine, "For this is My blood of the new covenant, which is shed for many for the remission of sins" (Matthew 26:28; see Mark 14:24).

Then Gabriel prophesies that the Messiah would bring the need for ritual animal sacrifices and offerings to an end. The writer of Hebrews plainly states, "For it is not possible that the blood of bulls and goats could take away sins" (Hebrews 10:4). Christ's sacrifice was much more effective: "Not with the blood of goats and calves, but with His own blood He entered the Most Holy Place once for all, having obtained eternal redemption" (Hebrews 9:12).


The angel says the Messiah would accomplish this "in the middle [midst, KJV] of the week." Obviously, its primary meaning refers to the middle of the seventieth week, or literally, three and a half years, the exact length of Christ's ministry. However, as we have seen, God fulfills His prophecies perfectly. Not only did Jesus' ministry last for three and a half years, but He also died on a Wednesday, the exact middle day of a week!

 

[Jim W]

Daniel the prophet received an intriguing prophecy from the archangel Gabriel in Daniel 9:24-27. This passage is known as the Seventy Weeks Prophecy, for Gabriel gives a seventy-week time frame for the coming of the Messiah.

Sigh. No, Wopik.

Dan 9:24 Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people( The Jews ) and upon thy holy city,( Jerusalem ) to finish the transgression, and to make an end of sins, and to make reconciliation for iniquity, and to bring in everlasting righteousness, and to seal up the vision and prophecy, and to anoint the most Holy.

Daniel gives a 69 week time period for the coming of Messiah; not 70. The 70 weeks are the prophecy determined on the JEWS and on JERUSALEM.

And after the sixty-two weeks Messiah shall be cut off, but not for Himself. . . . Then He shall confirm a covenant with many for one week [the seventieth week]; but in the middle of the week He shall bring an end to sacrifice and offering.

The important part is what you omitted in the middle of that qoute...

Dan 9:26 And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself:...

Then the next part...

Dan 9:26 ... and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined.

WHO DESTROYED THE CITY AND THE SANCTUARY after Christ was "cut off"? THE ROMANS. They are the people of the prince that shall come. Get it? The Romans? The "prince who shall come", the ANTI-CHRIST. Get it? The leader of the revived ROMAN EMPIRE? In the 70th week? The 7 year tribulation period? Get it?

Next, the prophecy says He would "confirm a covenant with many." Is this not what He did?...


No, it's what anti-christ will do.


The angel says the Messiah would accomplish this "in the middle [midst, KJV] of the week."


No, it's what anti-christ will accomplish.

Dan 9:27 And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.

Did Christ make something "desolate" for the purpose of "overspreading of abominations"???


Obviously, its primary meaning refers to the middle of the seventieth week, or literally, three and a half years, the exact length of Christ's ministry. However, as we have seen, God fulfills His prophecies perfectly. Not only did Jesus' ministry last for three and a half years, but He also died on a Wednesday, the exact middle day of a week!

No, obviously, this is referring to what anti-christ will do in the 70th week; the tribulation period, just prior to Christ's return.

Dan 9:26 And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined.
Dan 9:27 And HE shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week HE shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations HE shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.


The antecedent to the pronoun "HE" in verse 27 is ANTI-CHRIST! ( The prince that is to come, who's people destroyed the city and sanctuary in 70 a.d. ) Not Christ!

You just applied scripture referring to anti-christ to Christ.

Got you a couple of post on the "Eternal Fire" thread.

Jim

[ June 29, 2004, 06:29 PM: Message edited by: Jim W ]