Question: I have two men who recently made professions for Christ and they will be baptized in several weeks. Lord's Supper is Next week - can they partake since they haven't been baptized? If not why-not? ANy scriptural reasons you can think of. Also, what does the average Baptist church do in these situations?
Thanks for your any help in this matter
BRo. Todd
Baptism and Lords Supper?
Discussion in '2005 Archive' started by Trapper, Jun 27, 2005.
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There is no biblical reason why they cannot participate prior to baptism. However many Baptist churches do suggest baptism is a prerequisite for participating in the LS. The Baptist Faith and Message even suggests it. However there is no clear biblical evidence in favor of baptism prior to LS participation.
If a person has committed their life to Jesus Christ, I allow participation. If a person who claims to have committed their life to Jesus Christ but refuses to get baptized, I question their professed commitment. -
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Well we simply had the Baptism scheduled so family and friends could attend. It falls just after we have Lord's Supper.
(P.S. My Grandmothers side are Casaday's also)
Bro. Todd -
Doc Cassidy, many smaller churches in Georgia also have to borrow baptismal pools or use lakes.
We had a Catholic fella, bank president, accept Christ a few months ago. He flew in his grandparents and other relatives for his baptism so it was 'put off' for a few weeks.
Since baptism is a symbol and those saved sometimes cannot control the timing of said baptism, I see no problem with them participating in the Lord's Supper prior to baptism, IF that is in the planning stage. IF someone refused baptism, I would agree with a previous poster about concern about their salvation experience and would reconsider their partaking in the Lord's Supper.
Matt 10:32 "Therefore whoever confesses Me before men, him I will also confess before My Father who is in heaven.
Luke 12:8 "Also I say to you, whoever confesses Me before men, him the Son of Man also will confess before the angels of God. -
I agree with Diane here. It has been a "baptist" thing to not allow people to participate in the Lord's Supper until after baptism.
However I find no support for that in Scripture. And where there is no support in Scripture we should tread lightly. -
To me, it seems that 1 Cor 11 is pretty clear that to partake, one must be an obedient believer. Therefore, church membership is a requirement, and baptism is a prerequisite for that. I would say hold off till next month. In fact, that's exactly what I said.
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Where? You quoted me about jumps in logic. But you quoted a post that didn't have any. What were you talking about?
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Where? You quoted me about jumps in logic. But you quoted a post that didn't have any. What were you talking about? Is it really expecting too much to think that Baptists on a Baptist Board would know the Scriptural basis for their beliefs?
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Obedience in this passage does not equal church membership. There is nothing in this text that requires baptism (or membership) in order to participate.
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Pastor Larry is right. The Lord's Supper is an ordinance for the local fellowship. Some churches have "open" communion, which means anyone is allowed. Many chose to have "closed" communion, where only members in good standing are allowed to participate. Given that the Lord's Supper is a show of unity among brethren to the cause of Christ, I think only current membership in good standing should participate.
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PastorGreg MemberSite Supporter
Larry is right on. Obedience includes church membership, a prerequisite of which is baptism.
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These are fair interpretations, but they are "extra" biblical. You cannot prove this case strictly from Paul's words to the Corinthians.
I will challenge someone to provide a BCV (book chapter verse) that proves that a person must be baptized (or even a "member" of a local church) to participate in the Lord's supper.
Is there any evidence that the 12 were baptized church members when the LS was instituted? -
Is church membership (as defined today) something the church has added to the NT teachings? I am not saying it is a bad thing. I am just questioning the validity and logic of the statement obedience includes membership.
Follow this statement out logically -- at what point does local church membership become necessary in order for a Christian to be "obedient"? Immediately? 5 days? 5 months? 5 years? What is the cut off?
I am not talking about baptism here. I am talking about membership. There are plenty of baptized believers who are not members. -
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The Southern Baptist Faith and Message makes the following statement:
Baptism and the Lord's Supper
Christian baptism is the immersion of a believer in water in the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit. It is an act of obedience symbolizing the believer's faith in a crucified, buried, and risen Saviour, the believer's death to sin, the burial of the old life, and the resurrection to walk in newness of life in Christ Jesus. It is a testimony to his faith in the final resurrection of the dead. Being a church ordinance, it is prerequisite to the privileges of church membership and to the Lord's Supper.
The Lord's Supper is a symbolic act of obedience whereby members of the church, through partaking of the bread and the fruit of the vine, memorialize the death of the Redeemer and anticipate His second coming.
Matthew 3:13-17; 26:26-30; 28:19-20; Mark 1:9-11; 14:22-26; Luke 3:21-22; 22:19-20; John 3:23; Acts 2:41-42; 8:35-39; 16:30-33; 20:7; Romans 6:3-5; 1 Corinthians 10:16,21; 11:23-29; Colossians 2:12. -
Thanks OldRegular
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The BF&M reflects an interpretation. Again I ask for a BCV that proves this position.
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Matthew 3:13-17; 26:26-30; 28:19-20; Mark 1:9-11; 14:22-26; Luke 3:21-22; 22:19-20; John 3:23; Acts 2:41-42; 8:35-39; 16:30-33; 20:7; Romans 6:3-5; 1 Corinthians 10:16,21; 11:23-29; Colossians 2:12.
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