During the marriage ceremony, Pastors will often use the phrase, "By the power invested in me by Almighty God, I now pronounce you man and wife" or words to that effect.
My first question is...where in scripture is any man given the power/authority to declare a man and woman to be a husband and a wife?
My second question is...where does scripture say that unless your marriage is "recognized" and "authorized" by the "Church" or by a secular government, it is not a legitimate marriage? I understand Romans 13 and others where we are commanded to obey civil laws in general. I am looking for a specific reference to marriage needing to be recognized my the "church" or the "government".
I am beginning to believe that Protestant Churches adopted the practice of Clergy being necessary to "legitimize" the marriage from the Catholic Church's practice and view of marriage as a sacrament.
If that is true, is our view of "marrying" a biblical one?
peace to you:praying:
Biblical Marriage
Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by canadyjd, Aug 3, 2007.
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First of all marriage does not belong to the church. The church has no power to authorize a marriage. That fact can easily be observed when God instituted marriage, in the garden. The institution of marriage was established by God for all humans, believers and unbelievers.
Generally each person accounts to God for their marriage. But like all humans we live in a culture and society that has common practices and rituals we use to socially demonstrate our marriage contract. As well, marriage has always been viewed as contractual, even in the garden. Unlike us, Adam and Eve had the convenience of the actual presence of God and Him to sanction the marriage at that time. Since then the institution of government has been established by God for all humans and now governments function in the stead of God for such authorizations. They establish what must be done for a marriage to be viewed as contractually binding in society.
In the case of a minister, he too can be viewed as standing in God's stead as a source of authority in sanctioning a marriage, making it legitimate/contractual. And in fact in America and most countries the government accepts this tenet and places trust in the officiating of an ordained minister, hence the reason they are often officiating and validating marriages. -
pinoybaptist Active MemberSite Supporter
Rather complicated, wot ?
On the one hand, a devout couple who gets married only in the church, and have no papers to sign, such as the marriage "contract", may be married in the eyes of the church they belong to, but certainly not according to law. Would they be considered common-law marriage ?
On the other hand, a non-churchgoing couple decides to get married only before, say, a justice of the peace, or have a mayor, or a ship captain, officiate their marriage, complete with the necessary papers from application to license and contract, they are absolutely married, both in the "eyes of God" and the "eyes of the law". Legally married, IOW.
Have had the same questions before.
Never arrived at a Scriptural answer. -
Married in the Parish Church according to the Rites and Ceremonies of the Church of England after Banns by me, John Doe (Vicar)
The lower part of the certificate for a Register Office wedding would say:
Married in the Register Office by Certificate before me, Frederick Bloggs (Registrar) -
Was John the Baptist wrong to challenge King Herod's decision to marry his brother Phillip's wife? King Herod was the "government" and could make decisions as it pleased him.
Why did Jesus say, "What, therefore, God has joined together, let no man separate" (Matt 19:6)? Why didn't Jesus acknowledge the role of government in authorizing a marriage at any time?
peace to you:praying: