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Can a Bible translation be a work of the Devil??

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Mexdeaf, Mar 20, 2011.

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  1. franklinmonroe

    franklinmonroe Active Member

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    Maybe not? The KJV also says that "for I the LORD thy God [am] a jealous God" (Exodus 20:5). And it implies that there are other gods by stating "have no other gods before me" (Exodus 20:3); an individual god would be "a god" among the "other" collective gods.

    Also see "a God" in Genesis 17:7, 1 Samuel 2:3, Nehemiah 9:17, Psalm 5:4, Isaiah 30:18, Jermiah 23:23, Ezekiel 28:2, Daniel 2:47, Luke 20:38, many others etc.
     
    #41 franklinmonroe, Mar 22, 2011
    Last edited by a moderator: Mar 22, 2011
  2. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    Agreed. Not only is it twisted but the English is horrible.Yet the NWT wasn't able to root out some orthodox Christian doctrines despite manfuuly trying to do so.

    I have had my copy of the NWT for years and I have gone through the New Testament and highlighted places where they weren't completely successful in stamping out biblical truths. You'll have to pass by some shabby work,but the truth is still present.

    Acts 4:10-12 :"...let it be known to all of YOU and to all the people of Israel,that in the name of Jesus Christ the Naz-a-rene,whom you impaled but whom God raised up from the dead,by this one does this man stand here sound in front of YOU.This is 'the stone that was treated by YOU builders as of no account that has become the head of the corner.' Furthermore,there is no salvation in anyone else,for there is not another name under heaven that has been given among men by which we must get saved."

    Philippians 2:9c,10,11: God...gave him the name that is above every other name,so that in the name of Jesus every knee should bend of those in heaven and those on earth and those under the ground,and every tongue should openly acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father.

    Titus 2:13 : while we wait for the happy hope and glorious manifestation of the great God and of [the] Savior of us,Christ Jesus

    1 John 2:12 : I am writing YOU,little children,because YOUR sins have been forgiven YOU for the sake of his name.

    [Whose name? In verse one,even in this bad translation: "...we have a helper with the Father,Jesus Christ,a righteous one." I know,it should be "the",not "a".But still...]
     
    #42 Rippon, Mar 23, 2011
  3. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    If Satan himself were behind a translation I think he is subtle and sneaky enough to do a much better job than the sorry excuse for a translation that the NWT is.
     
    #43 NaasPreacher (C4K), Mar 23, 2011
  4. Thermodynamics

    Thermodynamics Member

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    "Can a Bible translation be a work of the Devil??"

    I think it can in an indirect way. Satan is behind all false teachings, so any translation that includes an intentional false teaching could be said to have Satan behind it.

    Having said that, I am not sure why he would go to the trouble. Haven't false teachers often used sound translations out of context to teach their heresy?

    To be honest I see a greater threat in the KJVO heresy, those who push it cause many to doubt the accuracy of any version of the Bible or to put complete faith in their pet translation. Some KJVO people go so far as to teach that the King James Bible is a living thing and/or make it an object of worship.

    The best advice on this subject comes from the translators of the King James Bible when they praised the use of several translations. They were well aware that their work was not without errors of it's own and I am sure would look in horror at the KJVO movement.
     
    #44 Thermodynamics, Mar 25, 2011
  5. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    When the people are educated by JW teachers, their mind is locked by their false teachers because they controlled the people’s mind. How could they be saved when they read the NWT since their mind is locked with JW’s belief?
     
    #45 Askjo, Mar 25, 2011
  6. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    Do you mean that the Bible has "lies" in it?
     
    #46 Askjo, Mar 25, 2011
  7. Mexdeaf

    Mexdeaf New Member

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    (Re-posted for Stilllearning, perhaps it got buried and missed.)

    SL, thanks for your responses. I do pray that your wife is doing better.

    Quote:
    Hmm, that leaves a lot of latitude for US to determine who is "born again" or who is "living for the Lord" and thus to judge their motives for translating the Bible.

    I daresay the most godly of the KJV translators would not be welcome in your church today because they held to, and did many things that are not welcome in IFB churches today.


    How about "not deliberate changes" to God's word, such as additions or deletions made by the scribes- are they from Satan or God?

    I have read the Bible from cover to cover in at least five different translations, in both English and Spanish. Each translation had some differences but they NEVER have led me to doubt that what I was reading was God's perfectly preserved Word. Preservation rests in the original manuscripts. God's Word does not change. However, language DOES change. God knew that- that is why He had the NT written in Greek instead of sticking with the 'tried and true' Hebrew.

    Satan has never been interested in honesty, but Bible translators ARE- that is why they use those footnotes, just as the KJV translators did.

    I really, really would like to have Scriptural support for the bolded notion above.
     
    #47 Mexdeaf, Mar 28, 2011
    Last edited by a moderator: Mar 28, 2011
  8. dcorbett

    dcorbett Active Member
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    Example:

    Acts 8:37 KJV "And Philip said, If thou believest with all thine heart, thou mayest. And he answered and said, I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God."

    Acts 8:37 ESV **DELETED**
     
    #48 dcorbett, Mar 29, 2011
  9. Mexdeaf

    Mexdeaf New Member

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    And your point is? That the KJV is a work of the Devil because someone added verse 37? That the ESV is because it did not include the purported revision? Or what?
     
    #49 Mexdeaf, Mar 29, 2011
  10. Andy_S

    Andy_S Member

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    This was once said of the New English Bible, wasn't it?
     
    #50 Andy_S, Mar 29, 2011
  11. annsni

    annsni Well-Known Member
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    As Mexdeaf said, this was most likely added - not deleted.

    Sorry - This is from the book "The King James Only Controversy" by James White.
     
    #51 annsni, Mar 29, 2011
  12. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    Are you saying that Acts 8:37 (KJV) is wrong because of the false doctrine? If not, ESV translators omitted it not because of manuscript evidence/history, but because of Alexandrian Gnostic's interest.
     
    #52 Askjo, Mar 29, 2011
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  13. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    Did the Ethiopian eunuch get saved in Acts 8:37 in ESV?
     
    #53 Askjo, Mar 29, 2011
  14. annsni

    annsni Well-Known Member
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    No - nor is he saved in verse 37 in the KJV. He was saved when he believed. When he stated it, that was after the belief occurred. Without verse 37, we see in verse 38 that the eunuch was baptized so it's obvious he was saved.
     
    #54 annsni, Mar 29, 2011
  15. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    From Philip Comfort's book :Essential guide To Bible Versions

    If the verse was an original part of Luke's text,there is no good reason for explaining why it would have been omitted in so many early manuscripts. Rather,this verse is a classic example of scribal gap-filling,in that it supplied the apparent gap left by the unanswered question of the previous verse ("The eunuch said,'Look,here is water! What is to prevent me from being baptized?"').The interpolation puts an answer on Philip's lips that is derived from ancient Christian baptismal practices. Before being baptized,the new believer had to make a confession of his or her faith in Jesus as the Son of God.

    There is nothing doctrinally wrong with this interpolation;it affirms belief with the heart (in accordance with verses like Rom. 10:9-10) and elicits the response of faith in Jesus Christ as the Son of God (in accordance with verses like John 20:31). But Luke didn't write it. (p.264)
     
    #55 Rippon, Mar 29, 2011
  16. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    In Mr.Comfort's other book :New Testament Text And Translation Commentary he says :The NASB and HCSB,with typical sensitivity to the KJV tradition,include the verse,though it is set in brackets. (p.364)
     
    #56 Rippon, Mar 29, 2011
  17. Mexdeaf

    Mexdeaf New Member

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    None of the ESV translators were from Alexandria, as far as I can tell, and the charges of "gnosticism" were proven false on this board two years ago-
    http://www.baptistboard.com/showthread.php?t=58290

    The horse is dead, Askjo.
     
    #57 Mexdeaf, Mar 29, 2011
  18. Mexdeaf

    Mexdeaf New Member

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    He got saved in his chariot. The Bible is clear on that no matter what translation you use.
     
    #58 Mexdeaf, Mar 29, 2011
  19. annsni

    annsni Well-Known Member
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    Was it really in his chariot? I'd guess it would be hard to read anything in a bouncing chariot. I'd say he stopped and got out. ;)
     
    #59 annsni, Mar 29, 2011
  20. Mexdeaf

    Mexdeaf New Member

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    His chariot had shock absorbers. ;)

    Actually we do know that he was reading from the Bible- Philip heard him reading, asked him if he understood, joined him in the chariot as they continued the journey, and told him about Jesus. We know that they were traveling because the chariot stopped for the baptism- this is actually the very first "drive-in baptism" in the Bible.:laugh:
     
    #60 Mexdeaf, Mar 29, 2011
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