StraightAndNarrow said:
What does repent mean if it doesn't mean repenting of your sins?
How many times does one have to say it before it sinks in? If repent means "repenting of your sins", as you apparently claim, which sins are you saying God repented of? Scripture says God or The LORD did repent or did not repent 30 times. (I can give a list of these verse, if one would like, but won't unless asked.)
One has to say that God sinned, to hold your view. And it is purely and simply heresy to accuse God of that, IMO.
I have posted at least six or more times, (in so many words but I cannot take the time to look through 3,200+ posts, and hundreds of threads to get the exact wording to get a direct quote) that repentance that regards salvation is a
"a 'change of mind' toward God, and faith toward our Lord Jesus Christ" (Acts 20:21) , and is the a part of
"the foundation of a 'change of mind' from dead works, and of faith toward God," (Heb. 6:1) in accordance with the only two things that repentance is said to entail regarding salvation. Those are direct Biblical quotes, BTW, with the inherent meaning of the Gk. 'metanoia' used where the word "repentance" is found from the NKJV. That is the only two times that a 'direction' for repentance is found in the NT, as well. The verb "metanoeO" means "to think afterward" (or differently) [Thayer] and is the word usually rendered as 'repent' in the KJV. It is an "objective" verb, hence has God as the object, as in Acts 20:21.
The KJV, unfortunately, also renders 'metamelomai' meaning "to care afterward (or differently)" [Thayer] as 'repent'. [That word is found only six times, BTW (Mt. 21:29, 32; 27:3; II Cor. 7:8 twice, and Heb. 7:21.)]
In other words, it means "to feel differently". This is a "reflexive" verb 'toward oneself' as the RV and ASV render it, with the force of "regret" which the NKJV renders correctly, as 'regret' or 'remorse'. It is what Judas did- 'was remorseful' i.e. 'regretted', but he did not 'repent', or 'change his mind about God and Christ', as the NKJV shows. That is the "worldly sorrow" that, as Paul says, brings death (II Cor. 7: 8-10), which certainly happened to Judas. Paul in this passage also uses 'regret' at least twice in v. 8.
The very post of mine you are quoting from (#181, in this thread) expresses this, as do posts # 176, 179, and 181. If those don't make it clear, nothing I can add will, except two or three things, perhaps. And one of those I have in these posts, previously.
#1&2 - When I speak of this 'change of mind, or way of thinking', I am not, in any way meaning (or accepting) the "straw man" of mere "intellectual assent" as some opponents of 'free grace' have put it. This is not a mere 'whim' or 'passing fancy' as we too often use this 'change of one's mind' in today's world. I detest these words, even, for they are nothing more than a subtle 'back-door' attempt to inject "works" into 'faith/believe'.
This change of mind goes far beyond that, in that it is complete and is part and parcel of believe, for salvation. One can change ones mind, or repent, but not have the object of this change as the Lord, hence not be saved. But one cannot "believe on the Lord Jesus Christ", and be saved without this complete change of mind, or 'repenting'. That is simply not possible, and is the reason I have used the phrase
"Repent is the 'flip-side' of believe/faith." Does that make it clearer?
#3 Only one thing in Scripture is ever said to lead or bring one to repentance (Godly sorrow is said to ' produce repentance', but that is slightly different.), or this change of mind. It is found in Romans 2:4
4 Or do you despise the riches of His goodness, forbearance, and longsuffering, not knowing that the goodness of God leads you to repentance?
Hope this makes it a bit clearer, from Scripture, whatever some preachers have said, notwithstanding.
Ed