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!Cor 15:29
Else what shall they do which are baptized for the dead. if the dead rise not at all? Why are they then baptized for the dead?
I thought there was a thread on this but cant find it. Can someone point it out to me or add their thoughts or opinions? Its got me stumped.
:(
Thanks,
Rob
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I do not believe this describes any sort of proxy baptism.
I believe this is a rhetorical way of saying our baptism is meaningless if we are baptized for a dead Christ.
Above in vs 16 he said that if the dead rise not, then is not Christ raised.