Do you use the 1611 KJV?

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Dale-c, Jun 21, 2006.

  1. Eliyahu Active Member
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    Apocrypha

    One thing I have to add on this was that Josephus mentioned canon in his "Against Apion" which states 22 books, including 12 minor prophets in one book, Samuel and Kings combined, Ezra-Nehmiah combined, etc.around AD90, which may be just before Jamneah Council.

    Qumaran documents quote the scriptures similar to Josephus.

    In other words, the exclusion of AP from the canon was not a new thing established by KJV, but they existed before and KJV translators agreed to such classification.

    I don't think KJV established such criteria newly for themselves, but when KJV chose Masoretc Text as a basis, the criteria must have followed it. I don't think they rejected Jewish classification but just reconfirmed what was already established and believed.
     
  2. Askjo New Member

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    The KJV translators did not put the Apocrypha in the Old Testament, nor the New Testament, but why did they put it in the middle between the OT and the NT? I guess that they knew that this Apocrypha is non-canonical, but it is historical.
     
  3. Bro Tony New Member

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    double post
     
  4. Bro Tony New Member

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    [
    triple post
     
  5. Bro Tony New Member

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    quadruple post
     
  6. Bro Tony New Member

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    something has gone crazy
     
  7. Bro Tony New Member

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    ditto it happened again
     
  8. Bro Tony New Member

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    once again
     
  9. Bro Tony New Member

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    this is crazy
     
  10. Bro Tony New Member

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    help me--ive fallen and cant get up
     
  11. Bro Tony New Member

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    This statement makes me laugh, because of the continued double standard. If the NIV were to put a portion of greek mythology in the middle of it the KJVOist would say this proves its not the Word of God because they have added greek mythology.:rolleyes:

    Bro Tony

    Hey Ed---here is another one for your double standard thread. This is what I intended to say all along. LOL
     
  12. Ed Edwards <img src=/Ed.gif>

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    tee hee

    So noted.
     
  13. Askjo New Member

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    I have the KJV w/o it.
     
  14. Bro Tony New Member

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    This has no relavance to your original statement. The KJV of 1611 has it in it.

    Bro Tony
     
  15. Keith M New Member

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    Of course you do, as do the vast majority of people who use the KJV today. However, the Apocrypha was a part of the 1611 KJV. So the KJV you use today is different than the 1611 KJV in that it omits the Apocrypha. And you say the KJV is unchanged! Shame on you! :laugh:

    And you're absolutely right about the double standard, Bro Tony. But then the very roots of the KJVO myth are errors and double standards. :thumbs:
     
  16. robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    Can anyone even GUESS why the Apocrypha were placed into the AV 1611? I shall guess and say, for historical glimpses of the lifestyle of the Jews of the Maccabeean Era.
     
  17. william s. correa New Member

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    More guess work!

    I don't guess!
     
  18. Keith M New Member

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    Hmmm...could it have been that the Anglican Church, being so very close to the Catholic Church, actually accepted the Apocrypha as part of Scripture?
     
  19. Keith M New Member

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    Yes you do, Mr. Correa. Your KJVO myth is based on lots and lots of guesswork! :laugh:
     
  20. william s. correa New Member

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    No I dont

    The mind of Christ dosen't guess! And I have let it be in me! According to the Holy Word! :tongue3: