Does God speak a language with an unlimited vocabulary?

God is AMLIGHTY, and IS Infinite in ALL that He does.

He says, and it happens!

Genesis Chapter One is Testimony to His UNLIMITED Power!

 

It would be a language only between the Persons who are [the one] GOD.

 

I think the Lord's concept of language is something we will not understand until we are with Him, and even then only in a limited way.

For example all languages have past/present/future tense. With God those are all occurring simultaneously. He is in the past, present and future at all times. Speech that doesn't require time constrictions is not present on Earth because we are all subject to time. He isn't and His language will be almost totally alien to us (not entirely alien as we are created in His image).

 

God gave these human languages in the first place!

 

If there is an infinite number of languages, then there is an infinite number of praises and curses. That also puts another dimension to the question of when pentecostals (or others) "speak in tongues," are they actually speaking a language instead of babbling? For a God of infinity could have, or create if necessary, an infinite number of languages-- in which case any put-together of syllables is both a praise and a curse in infinity.

This is Twilight Zone stuff, and perhaps fitting for Independence Day weekend. Or maybe it's a different way of looking at the question: if God can do anything, then can he make a rock so big he can't lift it?

 

I am not talking about the "infinity of human languages", but of "the POWER of God", Who is LIMITLESS

 

If he is "infinite in all that he does," as you said, did he DO human languages?

 

when Paul recounts his conversion in Acts chapter 26, he says that Jesus Christ Spoke to him from heaven:

"And when we all had fallen to the ground, I heard a voice speaking to me and saying in the Hebrew (or, Aramaic) language, ‘Saul, Saul, why are you persecuting Me? It is hard for you to kick against the goads.’"

Not some "heavenly language"

In 1 Corinthians 14, where Paul discusses the Gift of Tongues in detail, it is clear from verse 21, which is a quote from Isaiah 28:11–12, that he meant "the Gift of Tongues", to be human languages, that are not known to the speaker, as we see from Acts chapter 2, " When this sound occurred, a crowd came together and was confused because each one heard them speaking in his own language" (verse 6). I attended a Pentecostal Church when living in London, in the 1980's, and saw first hand, the majority of "tongues" was no more than "human gibberish".

 

if Hebrews is "the language of heaven that has always been used and will be for eternity", then why did God Himself abandon this language, and use the more precise Greek for the New Testament? How would the Hebrew read for John 10:30, where the Greek is, "ἐγὼ καὶ ὁ Πατὴρ ἕν ἐσμεν"? "ἕν" here is neuter, and there is no Hebrew equivalent for this? The masculine "εἷς", would destroy what Jesus is saying here, on His "essential unity" with the Father, though Two distinct Persons, "ἐσμεν".

 

God spoke Hebrew to the Hebrews, to the Greeks he spoke Greek.
God is surrounded by a heavenly host, he speaks to them in a language they understand.

Psalm 19
The heavens declare the glory of God;
the skies proclaim the work of his hands.
Day after day they pour forth speech;
night after night they reveal knowledge.
They have no speech, they use no words;
no sound is heard from them.
Yet their voice goes out into all the earth,
their words to the ends of the world.​

Rob