This always happens: someone starts a thread and it just goes way off... ;)
My point in starting this was to show that in a decidedly eschatological passage, a time gap can be inserted without any violence to the text or to interpretation. All I had to do was show that the possibility existed.
The same thing is true in the Daniel 9 passage.
Does the New Testament allow for a gap period?
Discussion in '2000-02 Archive' started by Daniel David, Jun 27, 2002.
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