Double meaning words

Indeed it does. In Hebrews 2:10 it says Christ is bringing many sons to glory. Not all, but some. Those who are the redeemed are the ones He intended to redeem. It was pleasing in His sight to do so.

I went Bible Gateway and searched for the word many in the book of Matthew.

In 7:13 it says that many enter the gate leading to destruction.
So that clearly does not mean each and every, but some.

In 20:28 it says he gave His life as a ransom for many.
That obviously does not mean each and every. It means some.

26:28 My blood of the covenant, which is being poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins.
Of course many refers to some, not each and every.

27:25 the resurrected appeared to many
That certainly does not mean all, but some.

 

Romans 5:19 For as through the one man's disobedience the many were made sinners, even so through the obedience of the One the many will be made righteous. According to a Calvinist not all were made sinners because in the contrast between the many and the one, the many does not refer to everyone but the one. I kid you not

 

This particular part of Scripture deserves its own thread. What I am about to say is not going to be comprehensive. Adam is the old Federal head in that because of his sin all stand condemned. Christ is the Federal Head for all who are in Him.
In verse 15 of this chapter it says that many died through the transgression of the one man. That "one man" is Adam. All didn't die because Elijah and Enoch did not experience death.
Continuing in verse 15 :" how much more did the grace of God and the gift by the grace of the one man Jesus Christ multiply to the many!"
The 'many' are the ones in Him; that's the elect Church --His body. The redemption of Christ is applied to them. Those in Christ are considered righteous and vindicated because of what their Federal Head has accomplished for them. So then, there is the doctrine of imputation. Adam's sin has been imputed to the human race. In contrast, Christ the new Federal Head has imputed his righteousness to the many who are under his rule. Adam represented the entire human race. Christ represented those in Him.
Verse 18 :" Consequently, just as the trespass resulted in condemnation for all people, so also one righteous act resulted in justification and life for all people."
Obviously all people are not justified and have eternal life. In Romans 8, within what's called The Golden Chain, there is verse 30 :"And those he predestined, he also called; those he called, he also justified, he also glorified."
And those, not every human being.
Verse 19 : "For just as through the disobedience of the one man the many were made sinners, so also through the obedience of the one man the many will be be made righteous."
The words the many in the first clause means the mass of mankind. The many in the last clause means that part of humanity who will be made righteous

 

Many means all when Calvinism allows, but means some when Calvinism needs a contextomy to avoid admitting to false doctrine. In Romans 5:19 all in Adam are made sinners, all in Jesus are made righteous. So simple a child could understand if not previously brain washed with falsehoods galore.

 

As we have seen, context provides the key to allowing ambiguous words and phrases to be replaced with clarity.

 

Quite true.

 

Many means all when Calvinism allows, but means some when Calvinism needs a contextomy to avoid admitting to false doctrine. In Romans 5:19 all in Adam are made sinners, all in Jesus are made righteous. So simple a child could understand if not previously brain washed with falsehoods galore.

 

Very true. Did you forget that you said the very same thing in post 44?

 

Consider Luke 17:20-21:
Now He was questioned by the Pharisees as to when the kingdom of God was coming, and He answered them and said, “The kingdom of God is not coming with [signs that can be observed; nor will they say, ‘Look, here it is!’ or, ‘There it is!’ For behold, the kingdom of God is [fn]in your midst.”

Here the Greek word translated as "in your midst" (or "among you") also means "within you" according to the footnote. But the context, Jesus speaking to non-believing Pharisees, tells us the "kingdom" is not in them, thus "among you or in your midst" is the most probable meaning.

So once again the context should result in more precise translation choices. Here the KJV went the wrong way in my opinion.

 

Consider John 3:3: Jesus responded and said to him, “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless someone is born [fn] again he cannot see the kingdom of God.” (NASB)

Here the footnote indicates the Greek word translated "again" could also mean "from above." The Greek word is "anothen" (G509) and has several meanings. Referring to a location, it refers to the top or above the rest, referring to time, it refers to the beginning. Another meaning is also ascribed to the word, anew or again . Since another Greek word (palin) means again, a new beginning (anew) is the most likely actual meaning.

Obviously Nicodemus understood the meaning as "anew" rather than from above. So all the ambiguity, in my opinion, is removed by the translation choice, born anew. Note it is not the same birth, an again birth, but a new spiritually alive birth!

 

In post #18, I offered an interpretive translation of 1 Peter 3:21 as follows:
Corresponding to that, your spiritual baptism now saves you—not the removal of dirt from the flesh, but an appeal to God for a good conscience—through the resurrection of Jesus Christ,

In studying this verse, we know that when God puts us into Christ spiritually, we are saved. So when scripture refers to salvation as a present action (now saves) we can conclude "progressive sanctification" is in view. When we were placed into Christ and underwent the washing of regeneration, the "dirt" (whatever God held against us) was removed from the (depraved) flesh. That is not in view. Rather it is our interaction with God from our "forgiven, made righteous" status as a child of God. As we carry out our calling, our area of ministry within the body of Christ, and earn rewards, that is how our spiritual baptism "now saves us."

 

Mark 9:49 (NASB) “For everyone will be salted with fire."

What does "salted with fire" refer to: To salt something means to sprinkle salt upon something, or more generally to "season" something to improve its condition. When we share in the suffering of Christ, we are being "salted with fire." The idea of salt is also used as that which brings out the true flavor of something. So when we challenge one another in love, in edification, while not engendering conflict and disunity, we are said "to have salt among us."

 

John 1:9 (NASB)
This was the true Light that, coming into the world, enlightens every person.

Here we have a verse that is understood in many very different ways. The true Light of course is Jesus incarnate. Of course many interpret this "coming into the world" as referring to Jesus being born in Bethlehem. However, if we interpret "world" as meaning humanity, then Christ's revelation to individuals is in view. In verse 11 we see that Jesus came to His own (Jews) so coming into humanity probably refers to the inauguration of His ministry. And that is a long way from the views traditionally held.

Another problem word (having an ambiguous meaning) is "coming." This is present tense, but even when this was written by John, Jesus had returning to heaven, so why is Jesus said to "coming" rather than came into the world? Could the indwelling of the Spirit of Christ in believers be in view? I think so, because (verse 12) as many as received Him refers to those whose faith was credited by God as righteousness, and therefore God put them into Christ, where they were sealed in Christ, indwelt with Christ's spirit, which of course enlightens everyone indwelt.

By study of the context, and careful reading of each word in the verse, scholars still disagree.

For example since "the world knew Him not" cannot refer to our planet, for rocks and streams of water do not have the capacity to know things, humanity seems to be the intended meaning. But coming into humanity could refer to His birth, or the inauguration of His public ministry, or the indwelling of believers. Because the "enlightenment" is said to include everyone, indwelling is probable.

Thoughts?

 

Ambiguous words like words that have multiple meanings, are sometimes used to alter the intended meaning to pour man-made doctrine into the text. John 1:9 addressed in post #53 has been claimed to support the fiction of "Prevenient Grace." The claim is that since the lost suffer form total spiritual inability, they cannot be enlightened by hearing the gospel. No, first they must be enabled by "prevenient grace" which allows enlightenment of every person.

What can be said of this claim? They are trying to fix a problem the wrong way. Instead of rejecting the false doctrine of Total Spiritual Inability, they seek to nullify it by inventing yet another false doctrine. Oh what a tangled web we weave, when first we practice to deceive...