Scripture says that the Jews at that time no longer feasted the Passoverof the Lord (Lev.23:5). Jews celebrated the pagan holiday of Easter (Acts.12:4) (KJV1611)
Scripture does not say anywhere that Easter was celebrated by the Apostles.
The GREEK is PASCHA, which, at the time, meant only PASSOVER. "Easter" in the KJV is a GOOF, plain-n-simple. If Easter HAD then existed, neither Herod nor the Jews he was trying to please woulda observed it.
Nothing to do with what Luke wrote. Learn a little history.
Herod was trying to please the Jewish religious leadership as per Caesar's order. He saw that having James whacked pleased them, So he resolved to deal with Peter, but let the Jews do with him as they chose themselves, which he figured would please them even more.
So, he busted Peter, knowing he was itinerant, before he could leave the bailiwick, but PASSOVER was going on & he knew the Jews wouldn't deal with Peter til it was past. Thus, Herod intended to keep him
til PASSOVER was through, then let the Jews have him. No one was observing any "Easter" then.
"And when hee had apprehended him, hee put him in prison, and deliuered him to foure quaternions of souldiers to keepe him, intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people" (Acts.12:4) (KJV1611)
The reason for your ignorance is not knowing which text of the Bible is inspired.
No, it's YOUR ignorance for believing the KJVO myth. That myth is entirely man-made & not found in Scripture, a fact that automatically makes it false, not to mention all the LIES found within that myth, I. E. "The KJV is perfect".
"Easter" in the KJV is a GOOF; it was PASSOVER that was ongoing, & that's what the Greek says. You're simply WRONG to believe Easter is correct. It didn't even exist when Luke wrote "Acts".
Same verses are found in every other valid Bible translation. they don't point to any one version or language. And, in your AV 1611, there's this footnote for the 2nd them in V7: "Heb. him, I. euery one of them." The AV makers knew that verse is about PEOPLE, not words.
Do yopu know where this "Psalm 12:6-7 thingie comes from? I'll tell you. It comes straight from 7TH DAY ADVENTIST official Dr. Ben Wilkinson's 1930 book, Our Authorized Bible Vindicated, which became the "foundation stone" for the current edition of the KJVO myth. Subsequent KJVO authors copied it into their hooey, and you've likely picked it up from some of their garbage. (If mthe footnote I mentioned above isn't in YOUR AV 1611 copy, you have a counterfeit eition.)
Luke wrote the FACTS. And one of them was that PASSOVER was ongoing when Herod had Peter busted. Easter didn't then exist. Luke used the word 'pascha', the same word JESUS used for passover-unless you think Jesus observed Easter ! (LOL)
BTW, I APOLOGIZE FOR BEING HARSH & SNIPPY WITH YOU AT TIMES !
You are right; I was a little too harsh with him. I wrote an apology into my last response to him.
Why did I say the KJVO myth is full of lies?
One example is its claim that the KJV is perfect. That claim has been disproven by so many on umpteen different media venues that it's well-known. Now, someone can post something INCORRECT(I've done so myself) without knowing it's incorrect, but
the above KJVO claim has been disproven so often & thoroughly that
posting it further is POSTING A LIE.
God not only kept his words, the Bible, “as the word of men” (1Thess.2:13). He also preserved it as “a more sure word of prophecie” (2Pet.1:19), "(as it is in trueth) the word of God" (1Thess.2:13) from “this generation” (Ps.12:7), i.e. from the idolaters-cultists, whom you are. The Bible, as "a more sure word of prophecie" (2Pet.1:19) is closed to you by God.
The KJV is not "the Bible". it's a man-made TRANSLATION of God's word, same as are all others. it's one of many. You can't **PROVE** a thing you say about the KJVO myth.