The term translated "only
begotten" is based on from the Latin translation of the Greek meaning "uniquely existent," for having the since of an only offspring.
The Sonship preexisted the incarnation (Proverbs 30:4).
Proverbs 30:4 Who hath ascended up into heaven, or descended? who hath gathered the wind in his fists? who hath bound the waters in a garment? who hath established all the ends of the earth? what is his name, and what is his son's name, if thou canst tell?
This is a post incarnation prophetic question.
John 20:17Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.
Eternal sonship only from that point of view after the Logos became flesh and was named Jesus.
So yes from that qualified point of view I can agree with His "eternal sonship".
The question is a non sequitur because the Logos had not yet been given His human nature when conceived in the womb of a mortal human being and given His human name at the time of His earthly human birth.
Matthew 1:21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.
Again these are - according to your statement - referring to Him "prior to Him becoming flesh" are prophetic having been made - as you say "prior to Him becoming flesh".
I understand you believe the Sonship of Christ began with His incarnation.
Dr Walter Martin, author of
the "Kingdom of the Cults" held such a view.
He a the reason I do not hold the view. I weighed the issues and came to the conclusion that the
Son of God was always the Son of God. And became the Son of man in the incarnation.
So can we do this:
determine where we agree.
And compare where we disagree?
In the perspective of Christ becoming both the Son of God and the Son of man in the incarnation.
1) God was the Father prior to the Sonship of the Word.
2) Angels and men were called sons of God prior to the Sonship of the Word.
3) Prophetically the Word was prophesied to be the Son, being the sole creator of all things (John 1:3; Hebrews 1:2).
Jesus refers to Himself as the Son of man and makes mention that He is in Heaven (John 3:13) too. John mentions Him being equal with God,
God being His Father (John 5:18).
The writer of Hebrews makes mention that He maintains creation (Hebrews 1:3; John 1:9-10).
1) God was the Father prior to the Sonship of the Word. - In a sense of creator (the three persons played a role in creation).
2) Angels and men were called sons of God prior to the Sonship of the Word. Yes.
3) Prophetically the Word was prophesied to be the Son, being the sole creator of all things (John 1:3; Hebrews 1:2).Yes but as the Only Begotten.
The plural name of God is used of creation - Elohim -.
You and I are sons of God, Jesus is THE Son of God.
However I have no problem with calling Jesus the eternal Son of God as this differentiates his created sons from His Only Begotten Son.
Paul is making argument about being free from bondage.
The Jerusalem in Heaven is where the saints before us have gone.
And the saints collectively our predecessors, witnesses of the gospel are the mother of use all.
I am not sure of your objection if it is indeed an objection.
There was at one time a lengthy debate here at the BB as to the exact meaning of the word in which many lexicons and other sources were cited.
μονογενης
Friberg 03494 The only one of its kind
In what way is he "Only"?
NAS Hebrews 1:3 And He is the radiance of His glory and the exact representation of His nature, and upholds all things by the word of His power. When He had made purification of sins, He sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high;
John 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.
He emanates from the innermost being of the father. That is one way He is different than the other "sons of God".