1. Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!

God Was Manifested in The Flesh

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Martin Andrews, Mar 31, 2017.

  1. Martin Andrews

    Site Supporter

    Joined:
    Feb 26, 2017
    Messages:
    130
    Likes Received:
    10
    Faith:
    Baptist
    In most modern translations of the New Testament, we will discover, that, where the King James Version reads in 1 Timothy 3:16, that "God was manifested in the flesh", it reads: "He Who (or, simply "Who") was manifested in the flesh". The difference between the two readings is very important. In the first reading, we clearly have the Deity of Jesus Christ taught, where Paul calls Him "God". But, in the second reading, we have no such reference to Christ's Deity. The reader who uses such modern versions, will probably find a footnote to this text, as the New International Version has: "some manuscripts God". Footnotes such as this one, give the false impression, that the reading "God" is an invention by some over zealous Christian, who, while copying a manuscript, substituted "Θεοϛ" (God), for "οϛ" (who). When the Scriptures were originally written down, the form which the Greek characters were written in, was contracted. Thus, where we have "God" now written "Θεοϛ", the contracted form would be "ΘC", and for "who", which is now "οϛ", it was "ΟC". As the reader can see, the difference is only the line in the "Ο", and the one above both letters. So, a copyist, who denied the Deity of Jesus Christ, when he came to this text, only had to omit the two horizontal lines, and the reference to Christ's Deity in this text, no longer existed. On the other hand, the opposite could be argued. That a Christian who was copying the manuscript, when he came to this place, inserted the two lines, so as to have the text refer to Christ's Deity! Which is right? The present situation seems hopeless, as the person who affirms Christ's Deity, would maintain that Paul wrote "God"; while the Jehovah's Witnesses would no doubt argue for "Who", as being the work of Paul.

    For the reading "οϛ", the earliest evidence dates to the third century, where we find it in the Latin translation of a work by Origen (A.D.185-254), where the Latin is "qui" (who). We must not loose sight of Origen's theology on the Person of Jesus Christ. He taught that Jesus, when referred to by John in his Gospel (1:1), is to be understood as "divine", and not "God", arguing his case from the absence of the article (ὀ) in the Greek with "Θεοϛ" (="ὀ Θεοϛ"), where he says that its meaning cannot be "God"! But, what led him (and the Jehovah's Witnesses, today) to this conclusion, is not because of the Greek grammar, but, because of their theological position on Christ. Origen taught that Jesus is not of the "same essence" as the Father, but different, which was later taken up by the heretic Arius (Arianism). He also went as far as to call Jesus a "creature", thus making him into a "second god"! (See, J F Bethume-Baker: Early History of Christian Doctrine, p.148; F J Foakes Jackson; The History of the Christian Church, p.163). With this theology on Christ, how could Origen quote 1 Timothy 3:16 with "Θεοϛ", and hold to his position, that Christ is not God? There is no doubt that at a very early time, heretics were corrupting the Word of God, especially with respect to the deity of Jesus Christ, and the Holy Spirit.

    Much is made of the fact, the Greek manuscript, the Codex Sinaiticus (otherwise known by the Hebrew letter א ), which is of the fourth century, and the oldest manuscript of the complete Bible in Greek, does not have "Θεοϛ" in 1 Timothy 3:16. But, there again, this manuscript is given far too much credit for what it's worth, especially by those who do not know the history of this Codex! History informs us, that, in about the year A.D.331, the Emperor Constantine ordered fifty copies of the Scripture. Hitherto, Scripture was written in scroll form, but, at this time it was replaced by the codex (book form). We also know, that this task of copying from scroll to codex was undertaken by the efforts of one Acacius and Euzoius (about A.D.350), who were working in the library of Pamphilus, at Caesarea. It is almost certain, that the Codex Sinaiticus was one of these fifty Bible's that were copied by these two. (see, Sir Frederic Kenyon; Handbook to the Textual Criticism of the New Testament, pp.41, 68; and, Dr Frederick Scrivener; A Plain Introduction to the Criticism of the New Testament, vol.II, p.268-270). Now, for those who known their early Church History, the names Acacius and Euzoius, are known for their stand against the truth of the Holy Trinity, they were both hard line Arians, who went further than Arius (who admitted that Jesus was "like" the Father in essence), by teaching that there was no likeness at all, between the Father and Jesus! This, no doubt, resulted in "Θεοϛ" being replaced in 1 Timothy 3:16.

    Now, moving on to the reading "Θεοϛ" in 1 Timothy 3:16, we have the very early testimony of the Church father, Ignatius, who was Bishop of Antioch, and who was born just after our Lord's death, in A.D.35, and was martyred under Trajan (about 108 A.D.). In his epistle to the Ephesians he wrote;

    "εν σαρκι γενομενοϛ Θεοϛ" (VII.2)

    (Dr J B Lightfoot; The Apostolic Fathers, page 107. Note)

    "God having come in the flesh"

    Not only do we have this reading, but in this same Epistle, in chapter nineteen, we read the words:

    "Θεου ανθρωπινωϛ ϕανερουμενου" (God was manifest as man)"

    (Lightfoot, ibid, p.111)

    It is interesting to note, for the purpose of textual criticism, that even at this place we have a corruption. The Syriac Version of this fathers writings, has, instead of Θεου, υιου (Son), this is according to Dr Alford in his Greek Testament, Vol.III, p.332). The reading Θεου has by far the strongest evidence.

    For those of us who are familiar with the writings of Ignatius, it is clear that he did not always quote Scripture verbatim. This can be seen from the same epistle already mentioned, where, in chapter one he uses the phrase: "εν αιματιΘεου" (by the blood of God), (ibid, pp.172-173), a phrase he would not have used, had he not found it in Scripture. This, of course, is sanctioned by Paul in Acts 20:28, where he speaks of the "Church of God, which He purchased by His own blood"!; proving that the use of "Lord" in Acts 20:28 (as found in some versions) is a corruption.

    Not only do we have the early testimony of Ignatius, for the reading "Θεοϛ", but it is also quoted by (a) Hippolytus (170-236), the time of Origen!; (b) Gregory Thaumaturgus (213-270); (c) Didymus (313-398); (d) Gregory of Nyssa (330-395), who quotes this text 22 times with "Θεοϛ"!; (e) Chrysostom (347-407); Cyril Alex. (died 444); (f) Theodoret (393-458); (g) Apollinarius (310-390, heretic!). Here, we have the testimony of writers (all Greek) from the first, to the fifth century, who found "Θεοϛ" in their copies of 1 Timothy 3:16! This evidence is by far stronger than what we have for the corrupted reading "οϛ". It is interesting to note, that, though this text with "Θεοϛ" (as far as I am aware) is not used by Athanasius (296-373), in his disputes with the Arian's. Yet it was known in (and before) his age, especially to Didymus, who was a very good friend of Athanasius, who, with Gregory of Nyssa, uses this text with "Θεοϛ", against the Arian's! It is of course possible, that the writings of Athanasius that have come down to us, have been corrupted. We know from history, that many of the writings of Diodore, Bishop of Tarsus (died 390), were destroyed by the Arias (see, The Oxford Dictionary of the Christian Church, under "Diodore", on page 401).
     
  2. Baptist Believer

    Baptist Believer Well-Known Member
    Site Supporter

    Joined:
    Jun 20, 2002
    Messages:
    10,720
    Likes Received:
    781
    Faith:
    Baptist
    Does it?

    Seriously, if someone is going to jump to that conclusion, then they are looking for reasons not to believe.

    When I was an agnostic, reading through the Bible (a "modern version") to figure out if there was anything to Christianity, this sort of nit-picky thing was the farthermost thing from my mind. The context of this passage in the New Testament makes it explicitly clear Who was manifested in the flesh. Unless you are the kind of person who only reads single sentences out of context (aka "proof texting" - a trait of some Christians, not of most people), then this is an incredibly foolish complaint.

    This is straining at a gnat to support some sort of stance/preference.

    In case anyone is wondering, I came to believe in the reality of God as a result of studying the scriptures and experiencing being taught of God through the work of the Holy Spirit. And it happened while studying - primarily - the NASB.
     
    • Like Like x 1
    • Agree Agree x 1
  3. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
    Site Supporter

    Joined:
    Mar 19, 2012
    Messages:
    52,624
    Likes Received:
    2,742
    Faith:
    Baptist
    Both the Nasb/Niv attest to Jesus as being Lord/Christ/God more so than the KJV did!
     
  4. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
    Administrator

    Joined:
    Mar 30, 2005
    Messages:
    20,080
    Likes Received:
    3,490
    Faith:
    Baptist
    I was reading the RSV, the version evangelicals love to hate. But the words were living, and powerful, and pierced me to my heart and drew me to the Lord.
     
    • Like Like x 2
  5. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
    Administrator

    Joined:
    Mar 30, 2005
    Messages:
    20,080
    Likes Received:
    3,490
    Faith:
    Baptist
    How do you know that?
     
  6. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
    Site Supporter

    Joined:
    Dec 18, 2010
    Messages:
    8,817
    Likes Received:
    2,106
    Faith:
    Baptist
    As I wrote on another thread, I believe that around 97% of the Greek MSS have Θεοϛ.
    That seems rather conclusive to me.
    The new American Gideon Bibles and NTs, which now use the ESV, give Θεοϛ. The Gideons arranged this with Crossway.
     
    • Like Like x 1
Loading...