Christ applied a universal principle in speaking of false prophets. As a universal principle, it can be applied to anyone. A good tree cannot bring forth evil fruit.
Are you saying Adam was deceived and innocently disobeyed and that's what corrupted him?
Aron I am not clear on your answer. Does that mean you feel we can be tempted even if we cannot sin or we can only be tempted in areas where we can sin?
Originally Posted by freeatlast Would you agree that there can be no temptation without the possibility of give into it?
I did not say anything about Adam's choice being innocent.
In fact, the scripture says that Eve was deceived; Adam deliberately sinned.
That's why I used the word CHOICE.
Temptation is not contingent upon the corruptibility of the one being tested. It is impossible that Christ could sin, or even desire to do so (the desire to do so being an inordinate desire and the act of a corrupt, impure heart) yet He was tempted.
I believe I could post that Jesus Christ is God, and you would find a way to disagree.
Some people here are not here to discuss or learn or even teach.
They are here to disagree.
Unfortunately, you are near the top of the heap.
Yes sir it was a free choice. Adam wasn't corrupted until after he ate of the fruit of the tree of knowledge of good and evil. He was blinded to sin prior to that moment(not realizing that being naked was shameful), and then became blinded by sin, and being seperated from God because of it.
Are you saying that God created Adam without sin in Him, but he had the potential there to make true violational free will moral decisions, same way for Lucifer, both chose wrong?
You're taking a man's heart out of the question entirely with that assertion. He wouldn't have even taken it in his hand if there wasn't a change prior to the sinful act. If Adam's heart were not corrupt, he could have brought forth no sin.
So then, Adam, to have had a corrupted heart pre-fruit ingestion, what caused it to be corrupted? If that's the case, then God lied when He told him what would happen, if they ate that fruit, I guess. Sin is what corrupts, correct? Then for Adam to have a corrupted heart, then pray tell, what brought the change? I say it was the fruit that brought about his corrupted heart. What do you think caused this change?
I'm talking about Adam. The fall of angels is not something upon which there is a history written. Not an inspired one, anyway. Sure, many apply certain prophecies to the fall of angels, but it's a very subjective topic.
I'm saying that Adam, in an uncorrupted state, could do no sin. It was impossible, until he was corrupted.
You're all assuming his act was the corrupting force, instead of seeing it as the fruit of corruption.
That's not the point yet. The first point is that we begin with the universal principle laid down by Christ, and that is that a good tree cannot bring forth evil fruit, and neither can a corrupt tree bring forth good fruit.
If Adam's act was a bad act, it could NOT have come from a uncorrupt heart.