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Featured Honest Question for KJO

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Salty, Jun 10, 2020.

  1. Salty

    Salty 20,000 Posts Club
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    Acts 2:38 and Acts 22:16 seem to say that Baptism is required to complete your salvation.

    Of course as Baptists, we disagree with that thinking.

    Acts 2:38 states: "...Repent, and be baptized everyone... for the remission of Sins...
    We are often taught that the word "for" should be translated as "because of"

    So my questions -

    1) Should the KJV translators have use the phrase "because of"?
    2) Why did they use "for" Was it because they believe that baptism was required for salvation?

    NOTE: I am not trying to trap anyone - just an honest answer so we can intelligently speak with those of the Roman Catholic church, Church of Christ and other faiths who believe in baptismal regeneration.
     
  2. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    As has been pointed out many times, whenever we see the word "baptism" we must determine if "water baptism" the ritual is in view or our "spiritual baptism" into Christ is in view. Obviously our spiritual baptism into Christ is in view at Acts 2:38, otherwise the person would have already received the Holy Spirit.

    If we look at Acts 22:16 we see "water baptism" is in view, with water baptism being emblematic of our "spiritual baptism into Christ." Thus the water is emblematic of the spiritual washing of regeneration.
     
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  3. Ziggy

    Ziggy Well-Known Member
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    The KJV translators being Anglicans would hold baptism as a sacrament that included baptismal regeneration. That should explain their choice, no?
     
  4. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    The problem for KJV-only advocates is that they do not want to acknowledge any Church of England bias affecting translation decisions in the KJV.

    Perhaps a note concerning 1 Peter 3:21 made by one of the KJV translators would provide first-hand evidence of possible bias.

    Ward Allen noted: "The revisers had intended that the reader understand, by the answer, the baptism vow; and certainly the meaning is clear once it has been pointed out. The subject of the verse is baptism, which 'doth also now save us.' The soul is not saved by 'the putting away the filth of the flesh.' Answer, then, is obliged to refer to the baptismal vow." (Translating for King James, Notes Made by a translator of King James's Bible, pp. 27-28).
     
  5. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Acts 2:38 refers to water baptism. but the main point is that the Person baptized into Himself the source of the remission of our sins!
     
  6. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Wished that they would have just used immersed!
     
  7. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    So they did tie that in baptismal regenerating? Why would Baptists continue to use Kjv if that is true?
     
  8. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    What nonsense. Those that say we must be water baptized to be sealed with the Holy Spirit have a deeply flawed understanding.
     
  9. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Not saying that at all, but saying that it does refer to water baptism, but does not teach Baptismal regeneration in that passage!
     
  10. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    But since Acts 2:38 refers to spiritual baptism into Christ, where the washing of regeneration occurs, your post remains utter nonsense.
     
  11. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    refers to water baptism!
     
  12. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Right, water baptism results in receiving the Holy Spirit. Got it. :)
    Those that say we must be water baptized to be sealed with the Holy Spirit have a deeply flawed understanding.
     
  13. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    I am not saying that, just that the passage refers to water baptism. but not in the way Oneness and Catholics would see it as meaning!
     
  14. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    You are saying you must be water baptized to receive the Holy Spirit. Otherwise you would admit the baptism in view in Acts 2:38 is our spiritual baptism into Christ, where we are sealed with the Holy Spirit.
     
  15. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    No, am saying that peter was there referencing water baptism!
     
  16. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Absurdity on display, water baptism is not a prerequisite of receiving the Holy Spirit.
     
  17. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    never said it is, but peter is referencing water baptism there!
     
  18. rlvaughn

    rlvaughn Well-Known Member
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    I guess my question is why this is not a question for almost every English Bible translation. For example, of all the English translations at Bible Gateway, most of them use "for" in Acts 2:38. The 2015 Amplified Bible is the only one (of those there) that uses "because of."
     
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  19. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    What a waste, Acts 2:38 is claimed by Y1 to refer to being water baptized "for the forgiveness of your sins; and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit." Utter nonsense, but the fount of falsehoods just keeps posting.
     
  20. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    The source of the forgiveness for sins and rebirth is Jesus Christ Himself, the One water Baptized into!
     
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