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Featured How Christ Was "Made Sin"

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by KenH, Feb 19, 2023.

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  1. KenH

    KenH Well-Known Member

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    “For He hath made Him to be sin for us, Who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in Him” (2 Corinthians 5:21).

    I heard a man say that he was so tired of arguing over how Christ was “made sin” and how God’s elect are “made the righteousness of God in Him.” Well, I wish we did not have to argue over and debate this matter. I wish that we who claim to believe the Gospel of God’s free and sovereign grace in the Lord Jesus Christ were of one mind on this matter. But the problem of simply ignoring the issue is this – To deny or even confuse how Christ was “made sin” or how God’s elect are “made the righteousness of God in Him” as in 2 Corinthians 5:21, is to wade head deep into heresy. This matter is the heart of the Gospel as it answers the eternal question of how God can punish His holy and sinless Son, and how He can declare sinners like us to be righteous, and still be true to Himself, His own holiness and justice. It answers the great question of how God can be both a just God and a Savior –

    “Tell ye, and bring them near; yea, let them take counsel together: who hath declared this from ancient time? who hath told it from that time? have not I the LORD? and there is no God else beside Me; A JUST GOD AND A SAVIOUR; there is none beside Me. LOOK UNTO ME, and be ye saved, all the ends of the earth: for I am God, and there is none else.” (Isaiah 45:21-22)

    The answer to this question is found only in God’s wisdom, power, and grace to impute the sins of His elect to Christ – “To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto Himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation” (2 Corinthians 5:19). If God did not impute our sins to us, to whom did He impute them? He imputed them to His Son. This is what is meant in the Bible when we read Scriptures such as found in Isaiah 53:6 – “the LORD hath LAID ON HIM the iniquity of us all.” In the same way, God has imputed Christ’s righteousness to His elect – “Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works, Saying, Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven, and whose sins are covered. Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin” (Romans 4:6-8). This is how God justifies sinners, and it is no side issue or matter that we can agree on which to disagree. Do not let anyone cause you to ignore or belittle this vital issue of salvation by God’s grace in Christ!

    - Pastor Bill Parker, Eager Avenue Grace Church, Albany, Georgia
     
    #1 KenH, Feb 19, 2023
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  2. tyndale1946

    tyndale1946 Well-Known Member
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    That's what I've been saying since I've been on here... And how are your sins forgiven if he didn't?... Brother Glen:)

    2 Corinthians 5: 21 For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.
     
    #2 tyndale1946, Feb 20, 2023
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  3. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    Define "sin".
     
    #3 JonC, Feb 20, 2023
  4. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    Amen, brother Glen!
     
    #4 Martin Marprelate, Feb 20, 2023
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  5. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Jesus was the Lamb of God, thus God's sin offering. Full Stop.
     
    #5 Van, Feb 20, 2023
  6. KenH

    KenH Well-Known Member

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    The argument that Bill Parker is referring to harkens back to a controversy that arose in 2005 among sovereign grace folks, and resurfaces from time to time since then, when Mark Daniel preached a sermon in which he stated, "Paul using this very passage from Deuteronomy as his reference point for his statement in Galatians 3:13, is showing that one thing Christ became, that He was not before is that He became a sinner. He became a man in whom was sin!" (emphasis mine)

    Mark Daniels was quite wrong to say what he did. God has never been and never will be a sinner, including when Christ lived in a human body on this earth. Christ bore the sins of His people by imputation(charging or crediting) of their sins to Him. Just as His people do not become righteous in themselves but are righteous by the imputation(charging or crediting) of Christ's perfect righteousness to them.
     
    #6 KenH, Feb 20, 2023
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  7. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    @KenH
    You are quote right; our Lord never became a sinner. But, 'The LORD has laid on Him the iniquity of us all' and 'He Himself bore our sins in His owm body on the tree.'
     
    #7 Martin Marprelate, Feb 20, 2023
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  8. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    My church is preaching its way through Mark's Gospel, with an intended end on Easter Sunday. I am in the process of preparing two sermons on the crucifixion. As I have studied the sacred text and looked particularly at Spurgeon and J.C. Ryle, some important points have become clear. Why did the Father permit such dreadful indignities to be inflicted upon His beloved Son? It is as we read in 1 Peter 3:18. Christ died as our Surety and Substitute:
    1. Mark 15:7-15. The guilty one is freed; the innocent given over to punishment and death.
    Why is this? So that we who are sinful and guilty may go free through the suffering and death of our Lord.
    2. Mark 15:16.. He was delivered into the hands of the Gentiles, the Roman soldiers (Mark 10:33-34). One day He will judge the whole world, but now He allows Himself to be sentenced unjustly and given over into the hands of the wicked.
    Why is this? It is so that we, guilty as we are, if we believe on Him, may be delivered from the torments of hell and set free of any charge because Christ has paid our penalty
    3. Mark 15:17-20a. Here we see our Lord mocked and derided, and given a crown of thorns by the soldiers as one who was utterly contemptible
    Why is this? That we sinners may have glory, honour and eternal life through His atonement. That we may be welcomed into heaven and receive a crown that does not fade away.
    4. Mark 15:20b. We see the Lord Jesus led away to crucifixion with a halter round His neck or waist (Isaiah 53:7).
    Why is this? that we might be brought to heaven, not led way to hell.(Matthew 25:30).
    5. Mark 15:24. The Lord Jesus, the righteous One, is stripped naked for crucifixion and the soldiers cast lots for His clothing.
    And why is this? That we who have no righteousness of our own might be clothed with the garments of salvation and not stand naked before God on the last day. That we might have a wedding garment so that we may enter our Lord's presence and not be ashamed.
    6. Our Lord suffers the most ignominious of all deaths - that of the cross, one reserved for the very worst of criminals. Ans the one on whom it was inflicted was accounted cursed by God (Galatians 3:13, Deuteronomy 21:23).
    Why is this? So that we who are by nature the children of wrath, and are ourselves under the curse of God for our sins (Galatians 3:10, quoting Deuteronomy 27:26), might be counted blessed for Christ's sake John 17:24) and have the curse removed by having it laid upon our sinless Saviour. 'Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by becoming a curse for us.'
    7. Mark 15:27. We see our Lord reckoned a transgressor and a sinner. 'He was numbered with the transgressors ...... though He had done no violence, nor was there any deceit in His mouth' (Isaiah 53:12, 9).
    Why was this? It was so that we, who are transgressors and sinners by nature and practice should be reckoned righteous for Christ's sake; that we should not have our portion among the wicked because the Lord Jesus took that portion on our behalf.

    There are a few more I could add, but my supper's ready. I hope this is enough to be going on with. I leave you with one question: why did the Lord Jesus refuse the wine mixed with Myrrh (Mark 15:23)?
     
    #8 Martin Marprelate, Feb 20, 2023
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  9. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    Thanks for the info.

    I know nobody here takes the verse as Christ being made literal sin (which would be a heresy). So I thought it needed defining.

    Seems like there are two main approaches to translating "sin" here - a literal approach and a theological approach.

    The literal approach translates the word ἁμαρτία as "sin offering" " as the Hebrew alignment, חַטָּאת, is translated "sin offering" over 100 times (Mounce, for example, maintains the literal approach).

    Theological approaches recognize "He was made sin" as not accurate but reads their system of understanding into the passage. Some view this as Christ exchanging righteousness for sin. Others that God looked at Christ as if He were a sinner.

    I prefer "He was made a sin offering" because, while interpretation is involved, it is a literal interpretation of the word (and prlerhaps the only literal interpretation that fits).
     
    #9 JonC, Feb 20, 2023
  10. tyndale1946

    tyndale1946 Well-Known Member
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    Jon your representative was Adam and Eve and because your representative sinned you sinned... Sin entered the world and death by sin, so death passed upon all men for that all have sinned... Original Sin makes everyone a sinner, what you do is what you are by nature
    I agree and 37818 had a problem with Genesis 3:22 and the scripture says lest man take of the tree of life and eat and live forever and he said no sinful man fits that description and I said that because you have the wrong man... The Lord Jesus Christ is called the second man Adam and is the only one that fits the bill and the only for that paid the wrath of God for us... And now lives forever... Jon and I have had disagreement on the scripture... My God, my God why has thou forsaken me?... Jon said the Lord loved his Son everlastingly which it true but for us to be free from our sins the Lord represented us, when our sins were laid on him... I see no other reason where our sins can be forgiven... We are not born in the image of God, we are born in the image of Adam... Read Psalm 51:5... This is how we came into this world... Brother Glen:)
     
    #10 tyndale1946, Feb 20, 2023
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  11. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    In the context of Christ "being made sin" I believe "sin" should be translated "sin offering" (the Hebrew equlivant is translated "sin offering" over 100 times in the OT).
     
    #11 JonC, Feb 20, 2023
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  12. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    There are several reasons why hamartia should be translated 'sin' and not 'sin offering' in 2 Corinthians 5:21.
    The simplest is that 'God made him who knew no sin offering to be a sin offering for us' makes no sense.
     
    #12 Martin Marprelate, Feb 20, 2023
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  13. KenH

    KenH Well-Known Member

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    Strong's says the Greek word is hamartia, meaning "to err".
     
    #13 KenH, Feb 20, 2023
  14. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    It does. "Sin" means to oppose God, to miss the mark (of righteousness), to err, "sin offering", etc.

    I believe in taking a literal approach to translating Scripture, knowing that interpretive decisions will be made.

    Out of the possible choices for "sin" the only literal translation, IMO, possible is "sin offering".

    The reason I believe this is translating the word "to err" means interpreting the verse to mean something that it doesn't actually mean (Christ did not literally oppose God's will or err).

    But "sin" is translated "sin offering" over 100 times in the OT (the Hebrew equivalent....the OT was not written in Greek).

    But the Greek word is hamartia is translated as a sin offering in the LXX (the Greek translation of the OT) so it was a common usage to Paul.
     
    #14 JonC, Feb 20, 2023
  15. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    Hamartia appears, I believe, 172 times in the NT, and in the vast majority of cases, to translate it as 'sin offering' makes no sense.
    E.G. Matthew 1:21. 'For He shall save His people from their sin offerings.'
    John 1:20. 'Behold the Lamb of God who takes away the sin offerings of the world.'
    Acts 22:16. 'Wash away your sin offerings, calling on the name of the Lord.'
    Romans 5:12. 'Therefore, just as sin offering entered the world, ..... and death through sin offering.'

    And so on, probably about 170 times.

    :rolleyes: I don't think so.
     
    #15 Martin Marprelate, Feb 20, 2023
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  16. KenH

    KenH Well-Known Member

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    But God's elect do so and it was that doing so that was imputed to Christ as a sin debt that He paid at the cross.
     
    #16 KenH, Feb 20, 2023
  17. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    Another helpful point is that in 2 Corinthians 5:21, 'sin' is being contrasted with 'righteousness.' Christ was made sin, we become righteousness, and the righteousness of God at that! If there is a cavil that Christ did not become literal sin, well, we do not become literal righteousness. As Pink says, we must read the Scriptures with spiritual eyes.
     
    #17 Martin Marprelate, Feb 20, 2023
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  18. KenH

    KenH Well-Known Member

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    Spot on!
     
    #18 KenH, Feb 20, 2023
  19. percho

    percho Well-Known Member
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    What I think concerning

    Matt 27: 46 My God, my God why has thou forsaken me? = made him sin / Now consider what James says concerning sin; From James 1:15 and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death. What does Christ say after, My God, my God why has thou forsaken me ? Matt 48 [vinegar] John 19:30 YLT when, therefore, Jesus [received the vinegar,] he said, 'It hath been finished;' (? sin, in, to the to flesh ? Rom 8:3 YLT below) and having bowed the head, gave up the spirit. Last words of Jesus same Luke 23:46 YLT and having cried with a loud voice, Jesus said, 'Father, to Thy hands I commit my spirit;' and these things having said, he breathed forth the spirit.

    for what the law was not able to do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God, His own Son having sent in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, did condemn the sin in the [dative] flesh, [dative] to the to flesh

    Behold the Lamb of God
     
    #19 percho, Feb 20, 2023
  20. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    I am talking about what is recorded in the text of Scripture, not various theologies.

    I was merely pointing out that the only literal interpretation that works for "He was made sin" is "He was made a sin offering". That is how the word is used in the LXX when associated with the righteous, and that is how it is used in the associated Hebrew.

    There are no examples of "sin" meaning sone type of imputed exchange. That is derived only by reading theology into the text.

    Likewise, the "sin debt" you speak of is not found in the text of Scripture (that I know of). Do you mean the Law of Moses being "nailed to the cross"?
     
    #20 JonC, Feb 20, 2023
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