Is Proverbs 25:1 "given by inspiration"?

The fact that they were copied doesn't mean they were not inspired by God. 2 Timothy 3:16 tells us "All Scripture is inspired by God. St. Paul doesn't give us any exceptions. My apologies for such a short answer, but it's the first thing that came to mind.

 

Perhaps you are the one squirming and dodging as you have not actually presented any sound, scriptural case for any claim that the process of giving of the Scriptures to the prophets and apostles by inspiration of God continued after the completion of the New Testament.

You jump to a wrong opinion if you think that Proverbs 25:1 supports your human, non-scriptural KJV-only reasoning.

Instead of trying to hide behind invalid questions where you assume some hidden and unproven premise, why don't you make your own assertion, back it up, and prove it to be true?

Are you possibly squirming to dodge your burden of proof and are you attempting to shift your burden of proof to others?

 

Do you prove your own "newly-minted" opinion to be vital, true and scriptural?

You have not proven from the Scriptures that the process of giving of the Scriptures by inspiration of God to the prophets and apostles continued after the completion of the New Testament.

The non-scriptural claim that Bible translations made after the completion of the New Testament are given by inspiration or are inspired creates more problems than it supposedly solves.

Perhaps believers who can read two or more languages can see the problem with this non-scriptural claim since they know that Bible translations in different languages often conflict. Those German-speaking believers who can also read English can see that Luther's German Bible and the KJV conflict and even contradict each other in some renderings so that both could not be inspired. Spanish-speaking believers who can also read English can see that the 1569 or 1602 Spanish Bible conflicts in some places with the KJV.

One or more of the pre-1611 English Bibles of which the KJV is a revision in some places conflict with renderings in the KJV.
The word of God was translated into English many years before 1611. KJV-only advocates make no sound, scriptural case for why the pre-1611 English Bible would not be inspired but the 1611 KJV supposedly would be inspired.

The Scriptures do not teach that the word of God is bound to the textual criticism decisions, Bible revisions decisions, and translation decision of one exclusive group of Church of England critics in 1611.

 

Were the translators of the Kjv 1611 inspired by God to make all of their choices?

 

Of course, as with all of the original autographs in the full canon of scripture. Likewise, the NT quotations from the LXX are inspired by God, though the rest of the LXX is merely human translation and not inspired in the same way.

 

Por que?

 

Yes.

No.

[Matthew 13:24-30 KJV]
24 Another parable put he forth unto them, saying, The kingdom of heaven is likened unto a man which sowed good seed in his field: 25 But while men slept, his enemy came and sowed tares among the wheat, and went his way. 26 But when the blade was sprung up, and brought forth fruit, then appeared the tares also. 27 So the servants of the householder came and said unto him, Sir, didst not thou sow good seed in thy field? from whence then hath it tares? 28 He said unto them, An enemy hath done this. The servants said unto him, Wilt thou then that we go and gather them up? 29 But he said, Nay; lest while ye gather up the tares, ye root up also the wheat with them. 30 Let both grow together until the harvest: and in the time of harvest I will say to the reapers, Gather ye together first the tares, and bind them in bundles to burn them: but gather the wheat into my barn.​

There you have it. The Proverbs before Proverbs 25:1 are the "good seed" that will yield "good fruit" and grow into the "wheat" that God will gather into Heaven. Proverbs chapters 25-29 are the "weeds" that the enemy of God (Satan) has sown to lead men astray. That is why we need the Holy Spirit to teach us and guide us into ALL TRUTH. Proverbs 25:1 is the watchman on the wall sounding the horn for all with "ears to hear".

I don't actually believe any of this, but you went through so much effort to build your "construct", that it deserved a more inventive answer than the boring sort that most responders will give you. Besides, (you should like this part) I quoted my support from the inspired KJV-only Bible, so my argument must be TRUE!

 

That is not what I said.
You asked about TWO different things Proverbs 25:1 (a single verse) and chapters 25 to 29.
Each question had a different answer.

Shame on you for pretending otherwise to misrepresent my post.

 

Yes, these proverbs were given by inspiration, and they were still just as much the word of God when and after the men of Hezekiah copied them.

In addition, Paul quoted something from chapter 25 in Romans 12:20, and in 2 Peter 2:22, Peter quoted from chapter 26, calling it a true proverb. There may be others. Since Proverbs 25-29 is part of all Scripture (2 Timothy 3:16-17) which was given by inspiration, was known by Timothy when he was a child, and was still profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness at the time of Paul's writing, the copying by the men of Hezekiah obviously did not mess it up.

 

Objection: Already asked and answered!

 

My "Of course" meant yes. (of course.)

 

At the least intriguing in this context: Deuteronomy 17:18-19 commanded the king to make a copy of the law of Moses and read it.