John 3:16 Study

Baptists are split on the specifics of John 3:16. When I was young, and the "Bible" was the KJV, we memorized the verse this way: For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, so that whosoever believes in Him shall not perish but have everlasting life.

1) The first issue is that some thought the verse was saying how much God loved. Now scholars translate the verse to indicate the idea is how or in what manner God loved.

2) Next, the translation of Kosmos (G2889) as world is ambiguous. The Greek word refers to an interrelated system, such as a planet or a society. Contextually, in this verse "kosmos" refers to fallen humanity.

3) Next the idea of "give" certainly indicates to provide or make available for use. Looking a little deeper the idea is that the gift would provide a blessing (shall not perish).

4) "Only begotten" is a mistranslation of "monogenes" and should be translated "one of a kind" or "uniquely divine." Jesus is not God's only Son, as Adam was also the son of God, and every born anew believer is also a child of God. However Jesus was one of a kind, uniquely divine, God incarnate.

5) "Whosoever believes" refers to an undetermined segment of fallen humanity, not a preselected segment.

6) In Him refers to those who spiritually enter into Christ's spiritual body, as the preposition translated "in" means "into." Since humanity is not able to change their spiritual location (going from the realm of darkness into the marvelous light of God's kingdom) "into" refers to God crediting the person's faith as "righteous faith" and on that basis transferring the person into Christ.

7) Once placed within Christ, the person is made (eternally) alive together with Christ.

 

God loved humanity in this way, He gave is uniquely divine Son so that everyone believing into Him would not perish but have eternal life.

 

I have given your idea, adding "divine," much thought. Personally, I have come to the conclusion that it would be more consistent to capitalize all Adjectives before said Deity.

 

The idea is to convey what made Jesus the unique Son of God. He, as God incarnate, was the unique Son of God, the only one of that kind.

 

Perhaps “world” is making the point God’s love in giving His Son was not limited to the Jewish people only, but included Gentiles. This is supporter by John 10 where Jesus speaks of those sheep “not of this fold” that will hear His voice and follow Him when He calls….

This is supported by John 12-13 or so when Jesus is told the gentiles are seeking Him and Jesus says “now is the time…” for the Son to be glorified.

The “whosoever” has already been limited verses earlier by “the wind blows where it wills…. so is everyone born of the Spirit” which clearly means those that are “born again” are born by the will of God Holy Spirit…

Which is an elaboration of John 1 which teaches those that are the children of God are born by the will of God….

Context determines the meaning and John 3:16 must be understood in its context.

peace to you

 

Pay no attention to those who speak of context as if it suggested some other context than the one presented in the OP.
The world referring to more than Jews is consistent with fallen humanity. Absolutely no contexual distinction.

Whosoever is not limited by the wind blows where it wills. There is no contextual link. And the fact that everyone born anew is born anew by the will of God is not at issue.

In Him refers to those who spiritually enter into Christ's spiritual body, as the preposition translated "in" means "into." Since humanity is not able to change their spiritual location (going from the realm of darkness into the marvelous light of God's kingdom) "into" refers to God crediting the person's faith as "righteous faith" and on that basis transferring the person into Christ. ​

 

Honestly, the first time I heard of any split on the specifics of John 3:16 was when I first started reading modern Calvinist literature and heard a reformed Baptist preacher preach on it. To this day I don't know why anyone would fool around with that verse. "World" means all, everyone, and "whosoever" means whosoever.

 

Anytime you see a Calvinist speaking of "context" what they are actually saying is according to the man-made doctrine of Calvinism. So they use "context" as code for man-made unbiblical doctrine.

 

" For thou [art] not a God that hath pleasure in wickedness: neither shall evil dwell with thee.
5 The foolish shall not stand in thy sight: thou hatest all workers of iniquity.
6 Thou shalt destroy them that speak leasing: the Lord will abhor the bloody and deceitful man." ( Psalms 5:4-6 ).

" The Lord [is] in his holy temple, the Lord’s throne [is] in heaven: his eyes behold, his eyelids try, the children of men.
5 The Lord trieth the righteous: but the wicked and him that loveth violence his soul hateth.
6 Upon the wicked he shall rain snares, fire and brimstone, and an horrible tempest: [this shall be] the portion of their cup.
7 For the righteous Lord loveth righteousness; his countenance doth behold the upright." ( Psalms 11:4-7 ).

When studying God's word, I've come to the conclusion that all one has to do when examining the subject of who God really loves, is to either ignore what these ( and many others ) say, or re-define them to mean " God loves some people less than others". However, I also have seen that, no matter how much we compare His actions and His words in other places, there will always be those who maintain that the Lord actually loves all men... even those who, in His wrath and displeasure, casts into eternal fire.

I remember when I was growing up, I was taught by many and using a few "verses", that God does indeed love everyone...
But when I started reading the Old Testament, for example, a very different God came to light.


Brothers and sisters, please examine this subject, for yourselves, and look at everything that the Lord has to say about who He loves and why.

 

I agree with that. Let passages that teach election stand without need of modification. The same with passages that teach God's sovereignty. Let passages that tell everyone to believe and repent also stand. If you let John 3:16 stand exactly as it is written you will be interpreting it the same way Calvin did. But remember that in other writings Calvin was very clear that he had a strong view of God's sovereignty.

At the practical level, the limiting factor of John 3:16 is the ones who believe. Even John Owen, who goes through all the exegetical gyrations to show that world is limited to the elect, elsewhere says that the only way to know if you are elect is whether you believe. We are not to speculate on whether we are elect but we do have a warrant to examine our faith and lives. We also have a promise and even a covenant promise that we all will be saved if we believe. Most Baptists aren't that familiar with covenants but take the promises we have in scripture at face value and John 3:16 is one of those promises. Don't mess with it.

 

Well there you go. Pay no attention to anything other than what you say.

Sure, I’ll leave you to your thread.

peace to you

 

In this way God loved the world --to the extent that he gave his one and only Son, so that those who believe in him will not perish, but have eternal life.

It is not humanity as such, but his elect scattered throughout the earth. Not Jews only but from among the Gentiles too. Christ was killed and with his blood he purchased for God persons from among every tribe, language, people and nation. (See Rev. 5:9)

To say "uniquely divine Son" is awkward. One and only Son comports nicely with the context.

"Everyone believing into him" is not natural English. Therefore, the more common expression of "believing in him" is better.

"Would not perish" doesn't sound like a promise, but a hypothetical.

 

Does world in J 3:16 have the same meaning of world in Rom 1:20 and or 1 Peter 1:20?

If not, why not and how do you know?

 

I have a real issue with this statement and believe it could be construed as an attack against the virgin birth of our savior, Jesus Christ. I can see the hand of the devil all over the translations that weakens this foundational doctrine of the Christian faith by attempting to redirect our thinking about it.

The very first prophesy in the scriptures concerning the coming of Jesus Christ as a man to redeem men from their sin is Gen 3:15.

Ge 3:15 And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel.

John 3:16 is not speaking of the only son of God, obviously. He is not the only unique son because all sons of God are individuals and are unique. He is not the one and only son, because there are many sons of God noted in the scriptures. Adam was the son of God but he was created and was not begotten of the Father. All those in the church are sons of God but it is because they have been born again by the Spirit of God indwelling them (making them a trinity), having been born first by a human father.

Jesus Christ was and is THE ONLY BEGOTTEN Son of God as John 3:16 claims. Jesus is the Son of God by birth, receiving his humanity, body, from the virgin woman, and to reveal Jehovah as the Father. In chapter one John had already proven that Jesus is the eternal triune God. When he came into the world as a man he was the only triune man from his birth. He was and is the God Man.


11 Verily, verily, I say unto thee, We speak that we do know, and testify that we have seen; and ye receive not our witness.
12 If I have told you earthly things, and ye believe not, how shall ye believe, if I tell you of heavenly things?
13 And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.
14 And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of man be lifted up:
15 That whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have eternal life.
16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
17 For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved.

Jesus Christ is not just the Son of God from the womb, who went upon that tree, but he is the ONLY begotten Son of God from the womb. If anyone thinks that is not true, then let him name another one.

Please do nothing to reduce his glory for what he did for us.

 

1) Yes, the verse addresses the way God loves.
2) World refers to all of fallen humanity, and not just to those who will be saved. See 2 Peter 2:1.
3) Uniquely Divine is not awkward. Only Son is false, as Adam was also the son of God.
4) Everyone believing into His translates God's inspired text.
5) Yes, will not perish is better, thanks.

 

Read Malachi to see how God loves. It will help you all understand what "world" refers to.

*Malachi 1:2-5*
“I have loved you,” says the Lord. But you say, “How have you loved us?” “Is not Esau Jacob’s brother?” declares the Lord. “Yet I have loved Jacob but Esau I have hated. I have laid waste his hill country and left his heritage to jackals of the desert.” If Edom says, “We are shattered but we will rebuild the ruins,” the Lord of hosts says, “They may build, but I will tear down, and they will be called ‘the wicked country,’ and ‘the people with whom the Lord is angry forever.’” Your own eyes shall see this, and you shall say, “Great is the Lord beyond the border of Israel!”

Connect this to Romans 9 and see how Paul connects the Israel of God (the Church) to Malachi. Since God is the author of all scripture then all scripture must be considered when interpreting.

 

Good questions, thanks.
1) The meaning in John 3:16 is fallen humanity because they, without the gift, are going to perish.
2) Romans 1:20 reads "from the creation" God's invisible attributes have been made known. Thus world refers to humanity as their existence starts the process of being made known.
3) The phrase "foundation of the world" refers to creation in general and not specifically to the creation of humanity. Here the idea is God had chosen Logos to be His "Lamb of God" before humanity was created for certain, and more probably before He initiated creation of our physical universe.

a. In Matthew 13:35 creation of humanity is in view as the things were hidden from humanity.
b. In Matthew 25:34, creation of humanity is in view as the homes of some were then prepared.
c. In Luke 11:50 we see the period in view is after the creation of humanity and lasts to the end of the age.
d. John 17:24 refers to before the creation of humanity and more probably before creation of the universe.
e. In Ephesians 1:4 the action of choosing "us" corporately occurs before the creation of humanity and more probably before our universe.
f. From the foundation of the world refers to God's entire creation completed on the sixth day.
g. Hebrews 9:26 refers to the creation of humanity as that started His need to suffer for sin.
h. 1 Peter 1:20 - see #2 above.
i. Revelation 13:8 and 17:8 both refer to the creation of humanity. ​

 

Non-germane response. The study is consistent with all scripture.

 

The John 3:16 rendering in the OP and post #2 does nothing to reduce His glory.
We agree He is the uniquely divine Son of God.
Monogenes does not mean birthed.

 

The word 'world' has nothing to do with 2 Peter 2:1.