King James only question

But, does this not raise equal questions as to the validity of just ONE inspired translation? Obviously, if Jesus saw the LXX as an "inspired version" He would be correct, right? And the LXX was neither the TR nor the KJV...

 

Hi glfredrick

You asked..........

No, not at all.
Your comparing apples and oranges. Because the LXX and the Masoretic Text are two different languages.

The KJB and all the MV’s are the same language.
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The idea of one person, using two or more English translations, causes more confusion.
Because one version says one thing, and another will say something else.

It’s left up to the reader, to decided which one he is going to believe.

God, is not the author of confusion.

 

Huh? Does not compute...

 

'All around the Mulberry Bush,
The monkey chased the weasel.
The monkey stopped to pull up his sock,
Pop! goes the weasel.'

And pop goes this same old repetitious thread.

'