Bro Bill: "So I assume by your remarks you have not read the ESV.I also assume there were no errors in the 1st edition of the KJV,as there are no errors now?"
Is this addressed to me or Askjo?
If to me:
On the contrary, indeed I have read and am reading the ESV, along with numerous other translations, with preference given to formal equivalence over against dynamic equivalence or paraphrase. I also continually compare them with the Greek or Hebrew as I read. Most "errors" seem to be matters of translational inconsistency as opposed to glaring factual problems such as the Mt 1:7,10 issue with the ESV.
As for the KJV, I don't use it for any serious purpose, and this has been the case since my conversion nearly 40 years ago (at which time the RSV was the first translation I ever used). I certainly would not claim there to be no errors in the 1611 KJV, nor would I claim such for any subsequent revision of the KJV.
King James or ESV which is most accurate?
Discussion in '2004 Archive' started by Bro.Bill, Aug 17, 2004.
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