I was doing a crossword puzzle recently and the clue was "Greek god of the wind". The answer was Eurus. Hmmmm... I remember the KJV uses the term "Euroclydon" for a violent storm in Acts 27:14. The NKJV also uses "Euroclydon"; the NASB uses the Greek word "Euroquila". None of the modern translations us "Euroclydon", instead they use "northeaster"
Given the etymology of the term, essentially it means that the Greek god Eurus is sending a storm, isn't it wrong for the Bible to use the term "Euroclydon"? I would think the translators know the origin of the word and would have avoided using it in the Bible.
KJV, Eurus the Greek god and Euroclydon
And not aftir miche, the wynde Tifonyk, that is clepid north eest, was ayens it.
(John Wycliffe Bible 1185)
But anone after ther arose agaynste their purpose a flawe of wynde out of the northeeste.
(Tyndale Bible 1534)
The texts used by the KJV, and WEB use a variant reading. But if you just transliterate the Greek, you get "eurakylon." Why not just use that for the name of a wind that produces dangerous waves? That is what Luke wrote, why not stick with it. If you want to footnote it, say the name may refer to an east-northeast wind, but sources are not in good agreement.
The neighborhood of our church here in Japan is called Kyokushin (旭神), which by the Chinese characters ought to mean "The morning sun of a god." In reality, though, the Chinese characters were chosen not for their meaning but for the pronunciation of an Ainu word, not Japanese at all.
Likewise, the 1st century Greeks probably didn't think about the Greek god Eurus when they used the word, but the actual winds. So, personally I see no problem with the use of the word in the translations mentioned.