Why is it considered "logical" that there MUST be ONE "perfect" translation in English (or any other language, for that matter) NOW- when for approximately 200-300 years (dating from the time of Christ) there was no composite "translation" at all, yet people were saved, and churches planted? Were those Christians worldly or carnal because they did not have a "perfect" translation?
"Logic" and Bible versions
Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Mexdeaf, Apr 21, 2010.
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The first five books of the Bible were passed on by word of mouth and then written by the recognized authors to become the written word. I am not ignoring the fact that God guided those words, but we must accept that man still conveyed the truths, including the misconceptions that developed even among God's chosen people.
So often, we tend to make eternal truth and doctrines even from the errors of those people. Consistency of thought and principle is the key to scriptural accuracy and doctrinal truth, and not how accurate the translation. We never concoct a doctrine from one verse, but the multitude of verses conveying the same thought.
Paul was constantly correcting false teaching in his writing. These letters were copied and passed along from church to church, so they did have the Word, but not all of scripture.
This is also why it is so important to understand the language, the culture and local ideas in the original churches, to arrive at the Word of God, then and for to-day.
Cheers,
Jim -
2 Pet 1:20 Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation.
21 For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.
God commanded his prophets to write his exact words, not to add to them or diminish from them.
Deut 4:2 Ye shall not add unto the word which I command you, neither shall ye diminish ought from it, that ye may keep the commandments of the LORD your God which I command you.
Isa 30:8 Now go, write it before them in a table, and note it in a book, that it may be for the time to come for ever and ever:
1 Pet 1:23 Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word of God, which liveth and abideth for ever.
24 For all flesh is as grass, and all the glory of man as the flower of grass. The grass withereth, and the flower thereof falleth away:
25 But the word of the Lord endureth for ever. And this is the word which by the gospel is preached unto you.
God didn't promise to preserve a message or concept, he promised to preserve his "words".
Matt 24:35 Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away. -
preachinjesus Well-Known MemberSite Supporter
We've got a very reliable record of those times, specifically about the formulation of the Canon.
1. Well at some point they had to not exist. Do you really believe that upon His resurrection Jesus left the New Testament to His disciples?
2. The canonization process was a dynamic one. No NT book existed within five years of the resurrection. They were written and crafted over some time. It is a beautiful process, but it too time. The actual canon wasn't formalized until c. 397 so there was a deliberate process in place.
Besides the "Bible" for the first 150 years of the Church was the OT.
It sort of goes along with suggesting that you have to have a Bible in order to be a Christian. This is not a standard nor a privilege most Christians have enjoyed in history. We are a fortunate lot. Yet most Christians have not had that privilege (and many still do not.) -
But what has this got to do with preservation? Just because all Christians did not have every word of God does not mean every word existed and was preserved. -
Thinkingstuff Active Member
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Thinkingstuff Active Member
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Thinkingstuff Active Member
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Perfection is a goal and we strive for it even in our walk with the Lord. His word is our communication from God. I certainly want the best I can have. None of us are perfect and this is most likely why we do not have a pefect Bible. I do know this. If I can convince a Jehovah's Witness that Christ is actually God Himself from his own corrupt text then we all have to admit God's word will shine through all the mistakes. It certainly did before Bible ownership was available to the common man.
MB -
Exo 34:27 And the LORD said unto Moses, Write thou these words: for after the tenor of these words I have made a covenant with thee and with Israel.
28 And he was there with the LORD forty days and forty nights; he did neither eat bread, nor drink water. And he wrote upon the tables the words of the covenant, the ten commandments.
That should be settled now.
http://www.deanburgonsociety.org/idx_videos_wayside_bc.htm
#3 is the one I believe where he speaks on this. You might want to forward past the first 10 minutes or so as that is introductions, singing and the like, these were taken from actual church services.
These sermons are a little long, but if you are really interested in the facts are well worth watching. Pastor Waite was a pastor for over 20 years before he came to believe only the KJV used the accurate texts. He had been taught otherwise at Dallas Theological Seminary, and he simply believed what he was taught. He is not a 7th Day Adventist, he is a Baptist preacher. But from study he came to believe the MVs originate in corrupt texts and has spent his life since then fighting for the KJV. He is not a fanatic and opposes some (you know the names) who go overboard on this issue. -
Thinkingstuff Active Member
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Oh, if you go fast forward to about 30 minutes in video 3 Pastor Waite goes into great detail about the great evidence for Mark 16:9-20 which the W-H texts omit, and shows there was much evidence for it dating before the V/S. -
Thinkingstuff Active Member
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Exo 24:4 And Moses wrote all the words of the LORD, and rose up early in the morning, and builded an altar under the hill, and twelve pillars, according to the twelve tribes of Israel.
God spoke of the creation account when he gave the Ten Commandments.
Exo 20:11 For in six days the LORD made heaven and earth, the sea, and all that in them is, and rested the seventh day: wherefore the LORD blessed the sabbath day, and hallowed it.
Again, believe what you want. -
When Jesus spoke of the scriptures, he always mentioned Moses first. Why? Because Moses wrote the first scriptures.
Matt 19:8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.
Luke 24:27 And beginning at Moses and all the prophets, he expounded unto them in all the scriptures the things concerning himself.
Jesus expounded to these disciples in "all" the scriptures beginning with Moses. Why? Because Moses was the beginning of the scriptures. -
Thinkingstuff Active Member
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